This forum is an un-mediated, patient-to-patient forum for questions and support regarding HPV issues such as: genital warts, causes, diagnosis, cervical cancer, HPV in men, PAP tests, treatment, telling your spouse or partner
I asked this in the STD forum but my post was way too long. Posting the tl;dr version here.
Facts of my case:
• Single episode of mutual oral sex with friend (girl); I'm almost exclusively worried about my oral exposure via cunnilingus
• Find out later she previously had HPV diagnosis, but has had several "clear" paps
• 2 months after exposure, found out she had abnormal pap, was diagnosed with HPV-16
• Colposcopy showed NO dysplasia or abnormal cells
Can anyone give me insight into:
• Whether HPV is less transmissible in the absence of cervical lesions (dysplasia)?
• An educated guess as to the "per act" transmissibility of HPV-16 from vagina to mouth? The docs say "low" (sometimes adding "5% or less", some resources online say "close to 100%". This is driving me nuts.
• If I am infected, regardless of whether I ultimately "clear it", how likely am I to spread HPV orally to someone else's vagina? I'd be somewhat relieved if the burden of worry was simply for MY future health, not future sex partners
I should add that there are a couple studies (like this one: http://www.livescience.com/16665-hpv-transmission-rates-20-percent.html) which show a "relatively" low transmission rate in couples after 6 months. That would SEEM to indicate per-act transmission is lower than what some sources claim.
Hopefully someone out there is as obsessive about this as I am and can lend me some insight.
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