A Summary of the Problem with my Wife:
I believe that my wife, who had suffered from postpartum psychosis after the birth of our last child, had an increased genetic susceptibility to affective illness as a result of hormone changes at menopause, especially with abrupt hormone changes that appear to have occurred because of her UAE and hysterectomy (induced menopause). COULD THIS BE TRUE?
My hypothesis is that the UAE (uterine artery embolization), to eliminate her fibroid, inadvertently targeted her ovaries and the subsequent hysterectomy caused a severe case of affective illness that has again greatly impacted her health and our life together. So, what never should have happened again, affective illness (postpartum psychosis after the birth of B____) has happened again as a more severe case of affective illness because of the combination nontargeted embolization of the ovaries from the UAE and induced menopause (hysterectomy). The only reason she had the hysterectomy was to eliminate the fibroid, because the UAE did not work. I believe the combination of these two procedures brought on affective illness worse than the postpartum psychosis she had a decade ago.
Why are the ovaries left during a typical hysterectomy? Primarily for maintaining hormone production, hence no need for HT per her Kaiser doctors. But, loss of ovarian function after UAE was not taken into account because of microspheres or PVA particles flowing into organs where they were not intended to go. Kaiser’s Informed Consent states: “There is a 1 – 2% risk of compromise of arterial flow to the ovaries, which would lead to ovarian failure”. From my research, though, I have found that “the incidence of premature ovarian failure after UAE for symptomatic fibroids was recently reported to be as high as 14%”. My wife was never checked to verify that her ovarian functions had not been compromised by the UAE. This should have been done, especially before hysterectomy. Neither had comprehensive hormone testing been performed to establish a baseline should any kind of hormonal treatment be necessary because it was assumed it would not be. I am convinced that her ovaries were compromised because of the UAE as detailed in . . . . . DOES ANYONE HAVE AN OPINION?