I had been having difficulty concieving following a stillbirth at 24 weeks. My dr began me on
Provera and after withdrawal bleeding began, I began the
Clomid. The seond month of the
Clomid, the doctor told me that on the third day after my period was due, take a pregnancy test. If it was (-) then began the
Provera (10mg a day x 5 days). Which I did. Just to be on the
safeSafe driving for teens
Safe sex side, three days later I took another test and it again was (-). One week after beginning the
Provera, I still had not started my cycle so I took a third test. This one was (+). My question is: I read in the drug manual that Provera is a pregnancy risk X (known to cause fetal defects and masculanization of the female). And yet my doctor tells me that I have nothihng to worry about, that he prescribes this drug for women with threatened miscarriages. The two peices of information don't click. Which one is right? Thank you
The discrepancy arises from the fact that Provera (and all synthetic progestational agents) are derived from androgens, and may have some residual androgenic activity. Some studies in animals have suggested that synthetic progestins (such as Provera or those in birth control pills) may masculinize a female fetus. However, I would agree with your doctor that longstanding experience with these agents in pregnancy (both accidently and purposely) have not demostrated any such problems.