When I first began having sex with my 26-year old boyfriend 4 months ago, he was never able achieve orgasm during intercourse but could occasionally reach orgasm through manual stimulation. He has no problem maintaining an erection. At the time, he attributed the problem to the Zoloft that he had been taking for 2 months. He stopped taking the Zoloft and within a couple of weeks was able to achieve orgasm during intercourse *some* of the time. It has been 3 months since quitting Zoloft and he is still unable to achieve orgasm at all much of the time and it requires much effort and is often unsatisfying the rest of the time.
My boyfriend suffers from depression (currently untreated) and is under a lot of stress due to work, school, money, etc. Two weeks ago, he had an awful headache accompanied by partial visual field blindness and nausea. 14 hours in the emergency room declared it a complex migraine having ruled out other causes (unusual given his lack of history with migraines). Since the migraine, he has had chronic minor headaches, back pain and a frequent stomach pain just below the sternum which he describes as feeling like he's swallowed a golf ball and its lodged at the base of his esophogus.
Could his current anorgasmia still be attributed to the Zoloft? Aside from stress and anxiety, is there any explanation for these symptoms?