ok, I know that it is possible for pre-ejaculate to contain sperm, and can get a woman pregnant.
However, my question goes a bit beyond that kind of general knowledge on the subject.
Here's the situation.
Month's ago I had sex with a woman roughly once a week for about a two month period of time. I never ejaculated inside her, and never ejaculated before having sex with her without urinating a couple times before we had sex.
She was also having sex with another man on a much more regular basis at the time. (this was known by all parties involved, and there was no STD issue) He also had unprotected sex with her, however he DID ejaculate inside her nearly every time(she has confirmed this).
The woman is now pregnant. About 5 months at this point.
What I want to know is do I have an equal chance of being the father of the child? Or is it much more likely that he, given the circumstances, is the father?
I would assume there's a better chance that he is the father, though I tend to be a worry wort and would just like to get an idea of the chances of me being the father.