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Update

Finally some answers. Daughter tested positive for OBands, I need to get the specifics on that. He is treating this as her first MS flare up. She will begin 5 days of IV steroids next week. Then we will talk meds. He did say that if she goes a few years after this with no flare ups he may feel comfortable diagnosing this episode as transverse myelitis. But for now MS it is. Thank y'all, I know I'll have a ton more questions!
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1382889 tn?1505071193
Yes!

Julie
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1831849 tn?1383228392
Yes, your summation is correct :-)

All lesions, old and new, will show up before the contrast agent is given. After the contrast is given lesions that are currently active or have been active within the last 30-40 days will "enhance". Lesions older that 40 days will not enhance. Enhance basically means the lesions will light up.

If a single MRI shows some lesions that enhance and some that do not, it is proof of MS activity at two separate times. It doesn't really matter how old the nonenhancing lesions are, infact it pretty much impossible to tell.

Kyle
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Avatar universal
so to break it down
enhanced=new
without enhancement=old

correct???
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1382889 tn?1505071193
Yes, you are correct Mama.

I know very little about transverse myelitis other than it involves the inflammation of the spinal cord and it can happen for a variety of reasons including MS.

Not sure how the diagnosis would change from MS to an episode of TM if no flare in next few years. I have gone 10 years between my relapses with my last one being over 4 years now. Remitting Relapsing MS means just that.

If the diagnosis is MS, the DMD's are gonna be very important, even if she has no flares in the next few years. The whole point of DMD's is to lengthen the time between relapses and lessen the symptoms when you have one, basically slow the progression.  Every relapse can potentially cause damage that may not be fully recoverable.

So, if the DMD is doing it's job, your daughter hopefully won't have a flare/relapse in the next few years. That doesn't mean it's safe to stop taking the medicine.

Remember too, it's ok to get a second opinion!

Julie

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987762 tn?1671273328
COMMUNITY LEADER
Hi there,

You are absolutely on the money, if she has both one non enhancing and one enhancing lesion on her MRI, that means one is old and the other is new, so this is definitely her second attack!

Cheers..........JJ  
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Avatar universal
Thank you so much for the support! These were the findings of the doctor that read the MRI
Cord lesion at C3 with post contrast enhancement most suggestive of an acute demyelinating plaque.
Smaller cord lesion at C5 without enhancement may be due to a chronic demyelinating plaque.

It was the neurologist that said one was older and one was newer. So my question to him will be, does that mean that this would really be her second flare up and that the older lesion was from a first flare that we didn't catch?  So if anyone can tell me what the above means in layman's terms. Thanks!
Helpful - 0
1382889 tn?1505071193
Thank goodness your daughter has you Mamabear!  It's a lot to take in for the both of you.

So your daughter has two c spine lesions and a positive LP?  Were you ever told if the lesions were active or old?  I remember you asking about the age of lesions and so I wasn't clear if you were ever told one way or another.

Keep coming back to this forum. Lots of people here who can offer advice and answer a question, and of course we would like to hear how you and your daughter are doing.

Good luck.

Julie
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