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What is FLAIR signal hyperintensity
After experiencing some minor numbness on my left side, I had 2 MRI on my head and brain.  The report I received says, in part:

"Several sulci of T2 and FLAIR hyperintensity within the white matter of both cerebral hemispheres"  "Primary diferential considerations include sequela of chronic small-vessel ischemic disease.  No evidence of acute infarction."

My Intenet searches have turned up a plethora of discussions of FLAIR hyperintensity in connection with conditions that range from Lyme disease to MS, but I haven't found a specific explanation of T2, FLAIR, or hyperintensity as they apply in this context.

Can you give me a fairly complete explanation of the terms and the significance of the phrase "sulci of T2 and FLAIR hyperintensity within the white matter" as well as any other insight into what this finding implies?
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I had a MRI (Brain) and would like to know if i am ok and free from worry :(

(Findings)

The brain parenchyma demomstrares a normal position of the midline structures. The ventricles, cisterns, and sulci are normal in size and configuration for the patients age. There are a very few minimal nonspecific flair hyperintense foci scattered within the bilateral subcortical cerebral white matter. No restricted diffusion is present to suggest an acute infarction. The gray-white interface is preserved. No mass, mass effect, intracranial hemorrage of abnormal extra-axial fluid collection is exhibited. Flow voids are apparent within the major intracranial arteries. There is a grossly normal cervicomedullary junction. Normal signal amanates from the calvarial marrow. The paranasal sinuses and mastoid air cells are unremarkable. (Minimal nonspecific cerebral white matter disease). Differential diagnostic consideration include chronic ischemic microvascular angiopathy, remote infarcts, sequela of migraine headaches, and residual of a previous infectious, inflammatory of demyelinating process. (ps) DO NOT UNDERSTAND ANY OF THIS AT ALL : (
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Hello my 16 month old daughter had 2 long seizures lasting 15-20 minutes each with episodes of absence minded, twitching of arms, contriction of limbs, eyes rolled, increase of mucous. Her first seizure was just 2 months ago and now just recently. After medication is administered she has small multiple seizures lasting seconds.  During her hospital stay many test have been ran with all labs coming up negative of infections. Her  MRI states symmetric FlAIR white matter intensivity..(something to that effect, i dont havit it infront of me) with a recommendation to redo in 6 months...What does this mean.
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what does... mri in front of me: bright T2 lesion 0.8x0.4 in right pariteal white matter, less defined patchy bright T2 lesion in bilateral deep white matter, few tiny up to 0.3 bright T2 focal lesions in left frontal & bilaterlal parital deep white matters . scattered puntate T2 hyperintense lesions w/involvement of corpus callosum....says impression: compatible w/stable demylenating disease such as multiple sclerosis, or ischemic lesions to vasculitis or migraine. over past yr had left face numb, tingle, sensation of warm water over thight, blurred vision seconds, mood swings, cant fucus, verigo, delayed speach for seconds, papls & extreme fatigue. im 33 and considered healthy.. vague strang sxs!!
feel like no one listening. my symptoms are real
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1475492 tn?1332887767
Welcome.

This is an old post. You may get more responses if you click the green button at the top of the screen and copy and paste this there. :)

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FINDINGS: No evidence of a Chiari malformation or partially empty sella.  No  
evidence of an acute infarct.  No MR evidence for intracranial hemorrhage.  
Compared with prior examination, re-demonstrated are scattered subcortical and
periventricular white matter T2/FLAIR signal hyperintensities.  These appear  
grossly stable when compared to the prior examination.  More diffuse white  
matter T2/FLAIR signal hyperintensities within the posterior frontal/parietal  
region also appear to have been present on the prior examination.  Post  
contrast imaging demonstrates no evidence of abnormal intracranial  
enhancement.

No hydrocephalus.  The intracranial flow voids are present.  Cavum septum  
pellucidum.

No fluid levels in the visualized paranasal sinuses.  Mastoid air cells appear
clear.

IMPRESSION:  

No evidence of acute infarct, mass or hydrocephalus.

Grossly stable nonspecific focal, as well as more diffuse, white matter  
T2/FLAIR signal hyperintensities without enhancement.  Considerations do  
continue to involve sequelae of migraine headaches, microangiopathic changes,  
demyelinating process, Lyme disease versus a vasculitis.  Due to the lack of  
enhancement, no evidence of recent activity.
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I am a little stressed here, and not sure If I should be.. I had a MRI done today of the brain w/out contrast. I have been having temple and back of the head headaches. The doctor called me in and said the MRI doc called and said I had a flair in post faulx right and left cerebal hemisphere. They said maybe acute tiny thrombus. I had no swelling of tissue. They scheduled me for a second image as MRV. The doctor does not seemed to be too concerened. I do have discoid lupis and am not on any birth control. I am also 41. If anyone has any info they can help with, it would be VERY appreciated.
Sincerely
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Hi this is what my MRI reads there are some very subtle areas of T2 flair abnormalities within the white matter that do not enhance and are nospecific. there is no enhancing mass, acute infart, midline shift, or external fluid. the ventricules and sulci are within normal limits. WHat does this mean im making a appointment with a neuro. symptoms of why i went to dr in first place slight numbness on right side of my face, leg weakness on right side. I have a hx of HTN, hypothyroid.Im 36 years old. I do have an old MRI thank god for comparison. Please anyone help explain what this means. Im a nervous wreck!
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1379611 tn?1451519460
My MRi also conatains this word.  "On the FLAIR sequences subtle
foci of peripheral T2 bright signal is probably volume averaging with deep sulci
rather than true lesions in the brain. No definite insults in the brain"   neuroanatomy, a sulcus (Latin: "furrow", pl. sulci) is a depression or fissure in the surface of the brain. It surrounds the gyri, creating the characteristic ...

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Hi, my wife had an acute headache and was admitted to hospital for suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage. The ct scan and ct angiogram were normal but spinal puncture showed blood but it was apparently a 'bloody tap'. Then an MRI scan was done which reads: there is a subtle sulcal FLAIR high signal in right medial frontoparetial regions suggestive of focal subarachnoid hemorrhage although there is no corresponding gradient susceptibility.' how definite it is that my wife actually had this bleeding? She is fine now, 4 weeks after the event but is complaining of strange sensations in her head, dizziness, particularly when talking or leaning forward, and loss of memory at times. Many thanks for any explanations
Armando
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Hi, can someone please tell me what Basal arteries and dural venous sinuses are patent means??????  and
No cranioverteral junction anomaly is shown???
Thanks in advance!
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hi this is an MRI result. any body can help:
multifocal bilateral small sized subcortical and paraventricular white matter and centrum bright signal intensitylesions are seen on T2& FLAIR images  due to most probably demyelinating plaques, possibility of MS should be considered
similar lesions in right middle cerebellar peduncle, pons and genu of corpus callosum are evident.
clinical correlation is recommended.
the interhemispheric fissure is centered on the midline.

the cerebrum and cerebellum exhibit normal cortical sulcation.
the cerebral ventricles are of normal size and symmetrical with normal circulation of CSF.
there are no sign of increased intracranial pressure.

the cortex & white matter show normal development.
No abnormalities are seen in the basal ganglia, internal capsule, or thalamus.
the sella and pituitary are normal, and parasellar structures are unremarkable.
the cerebellopontine angle area appears normal on each side.

the internal acoustic meatus has normal width.
the orbital contents are unremarkable.

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FINDINGS:

There is bilateral T1 hyperintensity involving both globus pallidi
and internal capsules, given history of cirrhosis which is consistent
with hepatic encephalopathy. Focus of T2 hyperintensities with
susceptibility artifact involving globus pallidi is likely secondary
to basal ganglia calcifications. Otherwise cerebral and cerebellar
hemispheres are normal in appearance and signal intensity. There are
scattered periventricular FLAIR hyper intensities, consistent with
periventricular small vessel ischemic changes. The ventricles are
normal in size. The basilar cisterns are maintained. There is no
evidence of intra-axial or extra-axial hemorrhage, or mass. No
abnormal enhancing foci are identified. There is incidental finding
of right cerebellar venous anomaly. Small amount of secretion is
noted into left sphenoid sinus.

What does this mean and should i do a follow up, if so what kind of doctor should i see? THANK YOU SO MUCH
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Hi can any1 help me,my 8 year old son has optic nerve hypoplasia(undeveloped nerve frm brain 2 eye) he is blind in 1 eye.he has loads nose bleeds,headaches,body cramps,stomach pains & stiffness causing him pain & discomfort any time of day especially on left side of body & his neck,plus toiletting problems. So an mri of brain was done and ultra sound of bladder & kidneys,we haven't yet received the written report of US but radiologist said his bladder was thickened which shows he can only hold 5 table spoons of fluid but should be able to hold 25-30 tbl spoons before feeling the urge @ his age,& even after he goes toilet several times his bladder still does not empty (WHAT DOES THIS MEAN ?)... Now the mri results of brain & orbits:- under developed optic nerve & high signal in T2. Elsewhere there are bilateral high signal small scattered foci in both hemispheres in periventricular regions which are non specific and of uncertain significance to patients age.( CAN SOME ONE PLEASE HELP ME UNDERSTAND)
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I don't know if you are still hear..  but being both a doctor /patient bet you can see both sides in relating to difficult diseases and diagnosing them.  I think it is great you are here trying to help others!    I too work in the medical field and also have neulogical disorder.    Sometimes it is frustrating knowing and interpreting reports on oneself.    But, everyday I am greatful for I could be worse off.  

Regards,  Anneliese ..  Arnold Chiari Malformation, hydrocephalus ...note ACM is one that can be mistaken for MS.. I have similar symptoms.
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Hi everone, Thank God I stumbled onto this site! I am at my wits end. I don't know where to turn so anyone who can guide me would be much appreciated. I will start with my MRI report which was done for worsening headaches: There haI am at my wits end. I don't know where to turn so anyone who can guide me would be much appreciated. I will start with my MRI report: There has been interval increase in punctate nonspecific white matter foci of FLAIR hyperintensity seen specifically in the left frontoparietal centrum ovale. Minimal periventricular FLAIR hyperintensities also seen. The MRI was done at my request since my last one was in 2008. My past medical history includes Hemiplegic migraine after suffering TIA from prolonged vasospasm @ 25yo, migraines/headaches since childhood, asthma,was in car accident at 36,  lumbar annular tear, widespread pain, muscle weakness, fatigue, maybe fibro, worsening symptoms over several years including irritable bowel, irritable bladder,  diagnosed with hemochromatosis, had port placed for phlebotomies and developed pulmonary embolus 7 days later, at which point I was diagnosed with protein S and Leyden V,  since then worsening headaches, partial loss of vision in right eye for approximately 3-4 hours, weaknesson right side, paresthesias, short and some long term memory loss, had bunionectomy developed complex regional pain syndrome, Upper GI swallowing motility problem, difficulty swallowing at times, tachycardia particularly after meals, achalasia, GERD, large hiatal hernia,  3cm lymph node tail of right breast, intermittent axillary and inguinal lymph node enlargement, lung nodule in lingula which was monitored had TB test and Flu shot developed abscess in right nostril with mild facial cellultis put on course of antibiotics and report CT scan of lung no nodule. Have had rheumatology workup nothing definitive, fibro, tried neurontin and lyrica and tongue swelled up lost sense of taste and face and arms dull sensation, diagnosed with  bipolar disorder in 40s, I am lost.  s been interval increase in punctate nonspecific white matter foci of FLAIR hyperintensity seen specifically in the left frontoparietal centrum ovale. Minimal periventricular FLAIR hyperintensities also seen. The MRI was done at my request since my last one was in 2008. My past medical history includes Hemiplegic migraine after suffering TIA from prolonged vasospasm @ 25yo, migraines/headaches since childhood, asthma,was in car accident at 36,  lumbar annular tear, widespread pain, muscle weakness, fatigue, maybe fibro, worsening symptoms over several years including irritable bowel, irritable bladder, have horrible nights sleep and need restoril every night- worked night shift for many years switched to days and have delayed sleep latency and had no REM during sleep study, diagnosed with hemochromatosis, had port placed for phlebotomies and developed pulmonary embolus 7 days later, at which point I was diagnosed with protein S and Leyden V,  since then worsening headaches, partial loss of vision in right eye for approximately 3-4 hours, weakness on right side, paresthesias, difficulty speaking at times word finding difficulty, short and some long term memory loss, had bunionectomy developed complex regional pain syndrome, Upper GI swallowing motility problem, difficulty swallowing at times, tachycardia particularly after meals, achalasia, GERD, large hiatal hernia,  TMJ, 3cm lymph node tail of right breast, intermittent axillary and inguinal lymph node enlargement, lung nodule in lingula which was monitored had TB test and Flu shot developed abscess in right nostril with mild facial cellultis put on course of antibiotics and report CT scan of lung no nodule. Intermittent protein C elevations, ANA, Lymes, Sarcoid, scleroderma negative. Have had rheumatology workup nothing definitive, fibro, tried neurontin and lyrica and tongue swelled up lost sense of taste and face and arms dull sensation, diagnosed with  bipolar disorder in 40s, I am a 51 year old nurse who has been struggling to work with use of FMLA but my symptoms have worsened and I'm on a LOA. I and am absolutely exhausted and frustrated trying to find someone who can put the pieces of the puzzle together so I can have some quality of life.
Thanks,
'Desperately Seeking a Solution'
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900662 tn?1469393905
welcome to the forum,  you can find many helpful people here,  

your question is under a old thread,  may I suggest you start a new thread and  break into paragraphs because a few us  of might find it hard to read..


take care
JB
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thanks for letting me know. I'll reformat. I am terrible with computers, could you tell me where the icon for start a new thead is?
cks
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900662 tn?1469393905

its at the top it says ,  post a question... I use a Mac so might it show up in a different location for you.
You can then cut and paste your questions

take care
Jb
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Thanks, here goes.
take care as well
cks
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my child age 10 years she was suffering with dizziness in 1st MRI report were evidence of rounded T2W/Flair hyperintense foucus seen in right frontal white matter - ? granulomatous lesion after 5days CT scan report Bilateral globus pallidus show minute calcific focus I cannot understanding the reports please explain
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Please send this link for info to me at email ***@****

Thanks
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5112396 tn?1378021583
As this is an publicly viewable and searchable forum, for your protection and also to prevent spamming, MedHelp does not allow email addresses to be published outside of private messages. Additionally, Quix is no longer an active member.

If you're curious about something specific, please consider searching past forum questions or post a new one of your own. There are a lot of knowledgeable and friendly people in the community who would be only too glad to help!
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one of my friend done his MRI & the impression shows that -> There is an abnormal, intra-parenchymal tortuous slow flow vessel in the left deep frontal region lying interior to the putamen with surrounding illdefined T2/FLAIR hyperintense area of abnormal signal.
Findings suspicious for a venous angioma.
Understanding the reports please explain.
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Coukd someone please explain this MRI repirt to me???
1. Small foci of T2 and FLAIR hyperintensity in the anteromedial right thalamus and also in the rightward cerebellum. These are entirely  nonspecific. They could be postinflammatory, postinfectious or postischemic. Neoplastic process would be considered unlikely. If warranted, further assessment with gadolinium enhancement could be performed. Clinical and/or CSF correlation may be of benefit. They are quite minimal however.
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Had MRI-could someone tell me what my results mean.

Multiple Foci of hight t2 and flair signal, mostly in the subocrtical white matter but also in the deep white matter.  Foci of microvascular ischemic changes or less likely demyelinatin process.

I have the MRI due to headaches with some headachs in/back of the left eye.  

Labs revealed positive ANA dual pattern speckled and Homogenous 1:80 sed rate normal.  

I suffer from pain in the legs and severe pain in my left hip joint.  Walking is painful. Painful joints in both hands mostlly the thumbs with decrease strength.

Have high bloo pressure, controlled with medication and Hypothyroid which is controlled with mediciation.
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Just had a 'brain MRI' for migraine headaches... result language similar to others in this thread... "T2 and FLAIR hyper intense foci... both cerebral hemispheres... Approx 20 lesions... sizes 2-4mms.." scary stuff to the layman, and hard to research because either it's generalized, or it's piece-mealed. Therefore, additional tests were ordered for me, I have both Lupus and Fybromyalgia. My ANA was positive during the MRI. I'm a little nervous, to be honest. This is not how I wanted/expected to spend my 4th quarter in life. I am only 56, hopefully gonna make it another 20-25 yrs, but I want quality more than number of years. So, is 20+ lesions something that will continue to rise? Is there a red-alert number of these that a brain can take? In plain speaking, give me your best - thanks. PS; I REALLY function better with warmth, heated blankets, a hat, etc., is this a 'bad' thing?
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Hi,
My daughter who is 21 years old recently had an MRI of the head done- this is what the report says, can anyone explain this to me:
Findings
There are multiple mainly subcortical white matter hyperintensities involving supratentorial brain parenchyma. There is no mass effect or surrounding edema. The corpus callosum, gray matter based ganglia and posterior fossa structures appear normal. No mass effect or midline shift. No evidence of acute ischemia.
Impression
Multiple white matter hyperintensities, for this age group, most likely related to demyelination process. For followup.
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5887915 tn?1383382380
Hi there & welcome,

I'm sure someone on the forum would like to answer your question but it may get missed as this thread is old. I can imagine you are worried about your daughter & I hope you get some answers soon.

Take Care,
Karry.
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recently i tested the mri of my mother which is surfing from upper head pain. the mri result are include the multiple focal hyperintensities in bilateral frontal and partial white matter on flair image suggesting old ischemic lessions.will u please suggesting to me what problem with her .. n what will be treatment for that .
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Please advise had and MRI done and it shows "There is patchy increased T2/FLAIR signal
    abnormality within the periatrial regions bilaterally" what does this mean
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5112396 tn?1378021583
Roughly, it means that during the T2/FLAIR sequence of the MRI in question, both sides of the... (and here I'm going to guess that if you're here asking about a brain MRI there's a typo involved) parietal part of the brain. Periatrial would be a part of the heart.

This can be caused by a number of things. MS is just one and also less likely than things like migraines, smoking, diabetes, etc., though these will often be further described as ischemic changes. Only your doctors can really elucidate the data for you. We're just patients here.

Usually on the report there will be a section labelled 'Impressions' where the radiologist will hazard a guess as to reasons for the finding. This is not equivalent to a diagnosis, rather a bit of short-hand for the treating neurologist if the images are available to them.
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MRI Impression - 2014 Aug
- mild degree of cerebral atrophy
-T1 hypointense, T2 Flair hyperintense foci in white matter of fronto
parietal lobes, periventricular region of both cerebral hemisphere -
Small Ischemic Changes.
T1, FLAIR, T2 hyperintense lesion in posterior part of left putamen-
lacunar infarct
- MRA - moderate degree of focal narrowing of M2 segment of left
middle cerebral artery
-Lacunar infarct in pons
-Attenuation of caliber of v4 segment of both vertebral arteries,
distal part of basilar artery and both posterior artery- Due to
atherosclerosis?
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5112396 tn?1378021583
This is a patient support forum. We are not doctors here. This would be best discussed with her medical team.
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okay, can i get some support..
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987762 tn?1331031553
You have posted your question in the Multiple Sclerosis community, I suggest you post this question about your grandmother's MRI in the neurology forum, where you may find a broader understanding but please keep in mind as immisceo pointed out, it would be best to discuss this with your grandmother's doctors.

Cheers..........JJ
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My MRI report say that
1. small nodular T1 & T2 hyper intense lesion in the sellar region abutting pituitary glang.? Pitutary Microadenoma.
2. Few tiny T2 & Flair hyperintense areas in bilateral frontal white matter non specific demyelination.
what is the meaning of all these?
  
***@****
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My MRI report say that
1. small nodular T1 & T2 hyper intense lesion in the sellar region abutting pituitary glang.? Pitutary Microadenoma.
2. Few tiny T2 & Flair hyperintense areas in bilateral frontal white matter non specific demyelination.
what is the meaning of all these?
  
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1831849 tn?1383231992
Hi Sufin - Welcome to our group.

We're not doctors, just folks with MS. The interpretation of radiology reports is best done by your doctor.

Kyle
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11437972 tn?1418227070
These are all my issues,

Health Issue

Date Noted

Vertigo    
Malignant neoplasm of salivary gland 06/25/2012  
Seizures 06/25/2012  
Facial paralysis 06/25/2012  
Hearing loss 06/25/2012  
Chronic headaches 06/25/2012  
Thalassemia 06/25/2012  
Fibromyalgia 06/25/2012  
Vestibular hypofunction 06/25/2012  
Squamous cell carcinoma of parotid 02/10/2014  

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11437972 tn?1418227070
My MRI read :

There are bilateral scattered subcortical white matter FLAIR hyperintensity, nonspecific finding, could be the sequela of chronic small vessel ischemic disease.

Polypoidal mucosal thickening noted within the bilateral maxillary sinuses.

Would you have any idea what they are talking about?

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Can a car accident resulting in severe whip lash be a cause for T2 flair
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1831849 tn?1383231992
Hi Busteretta -  Welcome to the group.

T2/FLAIR is a type of MRI, rather than a specific finding. if you're reading a radiology report, does it have an "Impressions" section?

As to MS and car accidents, MS is not caused by any kind of trauma.

Kyle
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Can someone please explain this to me?  All my doctor's office would tell me was that my results are "fairly normal"  I have been dealing with autoimmune issues, so naturally MS in on my mind.  I am looking for a doctor (neuro and/or rheum) to possibly get a second opinion.

Findings:  minimal punctate FLAIR hyperintensity in the corona, radiate, left pareital and right frontal subcortical regions, are nonspecific and likely of no clinical consequence.  Indication of papilledema

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Are T2 FLAIR white matter hyperintensities considered a sign of MS?  Are they lesions even before they turn to hypointensities?  My daughter has these.  Plus CSF O-bands.  She's 8.
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After 3-4 mounts of daily headache we did a MRI of my 12 years old . They found these single T2 FLAIR focal hyperintensities frontal and in corpus calosum. Please can you comment of these, are they showing something of concern.
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1831849 tn?1383231992
Hi dee -  Welcome to the group.

We are not doctors. We are just folks living with MS, or are in the process of determining if they have MS.

In my non doctor opinion, any abnormal finding is worthy of further investigation, if not concern. Hyperintensities are abnormal findings, but habe many causes and can be harmless. Your best bet is to discuss these findings with the doctor that ordered the MRI.

Kyle
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I have Chronic Lyme disease.
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Hello, I just got my MRI results back... I'm 31 year old female. I do suffer from BAD migraine headaches and I also had encephalitis. I also have some blurred vision from time to time... I was actually in a car accident and that was the reason for the MRI. However, It says , "There are a view punctuate foci of FLAIR hyperintensity seen within the cerebral white matter in the frontal lobes and right parietal region. There are nonspecific and could be migrainous."

What could this result mean? MS? Lyme? Something else???
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Hello, I just got my MRI results back... I'm 31 year old female. I do suffer from BAD migraine headaches and I also had encephalitis. I also have some blurred vision from time to time... I was actually in a car accident and that was the reason for the MRI. However, It says , "There are a view punctuate foci of FLAIR hyperintensity seen within the cerebral white matter in the frontal lobes and right parietal region. There are nonspecific and could be migrainous."

What could this result mean? MS? Lyme? Something else???
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11079760 tn?1483389730
Hi,

I encourage you to start a new thread so that your questions don't get missed. There are some really knowledgeable people here who can provide a perspective for you. My guess from the language is that the radiologists feels migraines or no real cause is the most likely; however, a neurologist needs to interpret the MRI for any diagnosis. Hopefully you have a follow up soon.

Cheryl
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