White matter question

First, thank you so much for providing this service. In December I had a central retinal vein occlusion.  I'm a 31 year old female. Immediately following that, I had headaches at the base of my skull and some tingling in the hands. I  assummed the headaches were stress-related as I am very high stress anyway, and the eye situation really made it worse. My hand tingling continued long after the headaches stopped and began to involve my feet. This continued for about 2 weeks. I was found to have a herniated cervical disk and cervical spinal stenosis. At this point, my tingling is pretty much gone, and I'm left with nerve pain (not intense, just quick and random)

My GP sent me to a neurosurgeon who said the disk/stenosis wasn't a big deal and wanted me tested for MS and chiari. I got my report back and have not talked to my NS yet.

The report said:
Scattered subcortical punctate foci of T2 signal hyperintensity are seen within the cerebral hemispheres bilaterally, greater on the right...best seen on the FLAIR. IMPRESSION: A few scattered nonspecific white matter changes filling none of the McDonald criteria for MS.

It said I have low lying tonsils, but no herniation, and there was a decreased flow around the Foramen of Magendie of indeterminate significance due to no anatomical abnormality.

My GP really freaked out when she read about the foci and said immediately "MS." I questioned this as the report said it did NOT meet the criteria, and she said it might just be because there weren't enough.

Should I be overly concerned? Are there other reasons why a 31 year old would have white matter changes? Is this at all common?

Thanks for any advice you can offer!

[Skye76]

I posted this in the wrong area. I'm not sure how to delete, but I will be reposting elsewhere. Sorry :)