I have been having horrible migraines, among a few other symptoms, and recently had an MRI done. The results came back as "abnormal" and the docter has referred me to a Neurologist. Unfortunatly can not get in until 10/1. I am guessing that this means it is not very bad, otherwise I would be in sooner. I am driving myself crazy Googling all of these words trying to piece them together just to get some sort of understanding. I understand that you may no be able to tell me exactly without looking at the MRI, but maybe someone can give me a little clue as to what this means.
The ventricles are of normal size and contour. The gray white junction is intact. No extaaxial fluid collections are identified, no evidence of acute hemorrhage. There are some non specific focal areas of increased t2/FLARE signal within the periventricular and subcortical white matter which are nonspecific. There appear to be normal arterial flow voids with some tortuosity of the vertebral and basilar arteries. Along the anterior aspect of the junction of the pons and the medulla, there is a 6X6 mm area of increased signal on the axial FLAIR images, #5 out of 24. This is only appreciated on the FLAIRS and is likely artificatual. The contrasted images do not demonstrate an enhancing lesion in this location. There is no evidence of old hemorrhage appreciated. The seventh and eighth nerve complexes appear within normal limits. Optic chiasm in the midline structures are otherwise unremarkable. Orbits and globes appear intact.
1.Nonspecific punctat areas of increased T2/FLAIRS signal within the subcortical and periventricular white matter.
2.6X6mmarea of increased signal seen only on axial FLAIR images, likely artifactual. Dedicated thin section axial and sagittal images may be of benefit.
Any translation at all as to what any of this means would be greatly appreciated:) Thank you so much in advance.
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