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Can you help me understand what this means?

I have the reports from two MRI's, one for my Cervical Spine and one for my Lumbar Spine, and I do not understand what they mean and I was hoping that you could help translate them into layman's terms so it will be easier for me to understand what it means.

The first one is of the cervical spine:

MRI CERVICAL SPINE PLAIN
CLINICAL INDICATION: NECK PAIN
TECHNIQUE: MRI of the cervical spine was performed using multiplanar T1 and T2 weighted images.

FINDINGS:

There is mild reversal of the normal lordosis.  The vertebral body marrow signal is within normal limits.  The craniocervical junction is within normal limits.  No prevertebral soft tissue swelling is identified. The spinal cord demonstrates normal size and contour.  There is decreased intervertebral disc space signal at all levels of the cervical spine.

At C6/C7, there is a noncalcified broad based intervertebral disc herniation with right lateral extension causing severe right neural foraminal stenosis.  The disc abuts the spinal cord.  No spinal cord compression is identified.  The remaining intervertebral disc space levels demonstrate no focal disc herniation or bulge.

IMPRESSION:
1.      Acute noncalcified intervertebral disc herniation at C6/C7 with right lateral extension causing right neural  
         foraminal stenosis.  The disc abuts the spinal cord. No spinal cord compression was identified.
2.      Reversal of the normal lordosis secondary to muscle spasm verus positioning.


The second one is of the Lumbar spine:

MRI LUMBAR SPINE PLAIN
CLINICAL INDICATION: LOW BACK PAIN WITH BILATERAL RADICULOPATHY.
TECHNIQUE: MRI of the lumbar spine was performed using multiplanar T1 and T2 weighted images.

FINDINGS:

The vertebral bodies demonstrate normal height and alignment.  The vertebral body marrow signal is within normal limits.  There is decreased intervertebral disc space signal at L4/L5 and L5/S1.  The conus medullaris terminates at L1/L2.  No prevertebral soft tissue swelling is identified.  The visualized kidneys demonstrate no focal abnormality.

There is no evidence of any significant disc herniation or bulge. No significant facet joint arthropathy is identified.

IMPRESSION:

1.       Intervertebral disc desiccation at L4/L5 and L5/S1. There is no evidence of any focal disc herniation or
          bulge. No central canal or neural or neural foraminal stenosis was identified.



Any information you can give me on what this all means would be greatly appreciated.
Thank You,
Ursula
3 Responses
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Avatar universal
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Hi there. there is intervertebral disc prolapsed at C6 C7 level and right foraminal neural stenosis which might be causing symptoms in the right upper limb like numbness, weakness and paresthesiae.  Your MRI lower back reveals disc dessication at L4 L5, L5 S1.  Disc dessication is the initial stage of disc degeneration that means drying up of the disc. This could be age related or daily wear and tear. It can be slowed at this stage by certain life style modifications like exercise and weight loss, massage and physiotherapy, painkillers. These can delay or even prevent radical measures like surgery at a later stage. Consult a neurosurgeon for further advice. Take care.

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Avatar universal
That isn't the part I needed the help on, but thanks for trying to help.
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Avatar universal
i'm no doctor but i am seeing a lot of "normal" in the findings so i think it means everything looked ok
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