Nutrition Health Chat: Tuesday, Dec. 8th, 5-6 PM Eastern. Learn how vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients affect your health. Free live Q&A. Join us!
Member Comments are provided by individuals and reflect their personal opinions only. Under NO circumstances should you act on any advice or opinion posted in this forum.  ALWAYS check with your personal physician before taking any action regarding your health! MedHelp International and our partners, sponsors and affiliates have no obligation to monitor any comments posted on this site, or the content and/or accuracy of such exchanges. MedHelp International does not endorse the views of any user.
 | 

Layman's Explaination needed

by askmeificare, Sep 10, 2007 11:43AM
Hi, I am a 42 year old mother of 6 and am scheduled for PT appointment and to see a Neuroligist after finally getting results to my MRI today for problems suspected to be relating to my back. I am not an idiot, but I walked away from my appointment today feeling a bit confused to say the least. Maybe someone can understand these results and give me an explaination better than my doctor did as to what they are saying in a way I can understand please. I had an initial MRI done back in Oct 06 from problems with my back results were 2 bulging disks,

I fell in the spring 07 and after 4 months now of both back pain but mostly right side pain and problems I finally went back in 3 weeks ago. The pain has become severe in my right buttocks, hip, groin and leg.  Mosly it is affecting me when I sit, walk or trying to sleep at night. I can no longer sit at my desk for any length of time, nor can I sleep on my right side any longer, as well as I have started to develop a gimp when I walk. Jeez way to young to start to fall apart...lol

Anyway this is what is written on this report and I have no real clue and maybe someone can give me a simple explanation:) Thanks!

There is a HNP seen left paracentral in location and it measures 5.5 MM in greatest AP demension. At L3-4 there is preservation of central spinal canal diameter and exit foramina. The abdominal aorta is normal in caliber.

At L4-5 a disc bulge is seen and there is an asymmetric superimposed protrusion left paracentral in location at this level. This protrusion measures in AP dimensions aprox 3 mm and contributes to ventral and leftward thecal sac effacement.

At L5-S1 left disc herniation touches the left S1 nerve root sleeve which is displaced posteriorly and please correlate for left lower extremity clinical syndrome involving the S1. This is opposite of the history provided which indicates the right leg pain..

There is preservation of lumbar lordosis and noncompressive disc bulge is seen at L1-2 level and disc desiccation is seen in the lower thoractic spine.

Impression:
1. Disc bulge at L4-5, L2-3 and L1-2 levels.
2. Left paracentral herniation at L5-S1 is seen touching the left S1 nerve root sleeve which is affected.
3. Asymmetrical protrusion l4-5 with ventral and leftward thecal sac effacment. There is no high grade central canal narrowing seen.
Post Comment
To
Comment
Post Comment
Recent Activity
jimi1822 commented on Can't get to My Medhe...
2 hrs ago
FinallyFred commented on Tramadol & Ultram...
2 hrs ago
today was different
3 hrs ago by stubby226
wondering1719 commented on It's been awhile!
3 hrs ago
chasha33 Praising the Lord,I am feeling better today
Jade59 commented on Can't get to My Medhe...
3 hrs ago
ONLY A DISH CLOTH
3 hrs ago by stubby226
petunia3334 commented on Tramadol & Ultram...
5 hrs ago
RSS Expert Activity
In the ER: Coffee, anyone?
5 hrs ago by Jon Geller, D.V.M.
My animal blogs! 
7 hrs ago by Justine Lee, D.V.M., DACVECC
Prevention Gains Momentum: Your Gui... 
Nov 29 by Lee Kirksey, MD
Community Members