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MRI report

My husband is 31 years old. He started experiencing muscle spasms 2 years ago. Since then he has started experiencing lots of other issues such as swollen lymph node behind ear, hip pain, heel pain, fatigue and loss of appetite. He has seen many doctors including PCP, ENT, Neurologist, and a bone doctor. Now he is being referred to a Neurosurgeon. He had a MRI done and I don't understand what the report states and why he is now being referred to this neurosurgeon. The report says " T1 images show a homogeneous, hypointense, signal pattern throughout the vertebrae rather than the usual hyperechoic fatty marrow pattern. "

His appointment isn't for another 3 weeks so I want to get an idea of what this means before then.
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Avatar universal
Thank you so much for your response. He has had many blood tests and they have all came back good. So we are thinking it is either myelomalacia or MS. I really hope it is neither but we will find out soon enough I guess. His appointment with the dr is May 9th.
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351246 tn?1379682132
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Hi!
If the lesion is T1 hypointense then it can be due to myeloma, myelomalacia, multiple sclerosis, or tumor. It is unlikely to be tumor as it is generalized. Your husband would need further testing for the other causes mentioned above. Please consult your doctor regarding this. Hope this helps. Take care!

The medical advice given should not be considered a substitute for medical care provided by a doctor who can examine you. The advice may not be completely correct for you as the doctor cannot examine you and does not know your complete medical history. Hence this reply to your post should only be considered as a guiding line and you must consult your doctor at the earliest for your medical problem.
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