My husband is 31 years old. He started experiencing muscle spasms 2 years ago. Since then he has started experiencing lots of other issues such as swollen lymph node behind ear, hip pain, heel pain, fatigue and loss of appetite. He has seen many doctors including PCP, ENT, Neurologist, and a bone doctor. Now he is being referred to a Neurosurgeon. He had a MRI done and I don't understand what the report states and why he is now being referred to this neurosurgeon. The report says " T1 images show a homogeneous, hypointense, signal pattern throughout the vertebrae rather than the usual hyperechoic fatty marrow pattern. "
His appointment isn't for another 3 weeks so I want to get an idea of what this means before then.