Since the age of 5, I had a very noticeable Class II Occlusion (overbite) which caused my front
teethBroken or knocked out tooth
Dental care - adult
Dental x-rays
Development of baby teeth
Development of permanent teeth
Plaque and tartar on teeth
Teething
Teething symptoms
Toothaches to protrude a reasonable distance.
I initially had orthodontic treatment at the age of 10 - 14 which had a minor effect but still left me with a very, very noticable overbite (I could not close my mouth around my front
teethBroken or knocked out tooth
Dental care - adult
Dental x-rays
Development of baby teeth
Development of permanent teeth
Plaque and tartar on teeth
Teething
Teething symptoms
Toothaches easily, it required effort).
At the age of 21 I began further orthodontic treatment and last year at the age of 23, I underwent surgery to both jaws to
correctCorrect (new formula) the malocclusion. The upper jaw had grown downwards due to the recessed lower jaw and so was raised, I believe by around 5mm. The lower jaw was
brokenBroken bone
Broken or knocked out tooth and brought forward to better align. I now have a fully functioning
biteAnimal bite
Animal bite - first aid - series
Animal bites
Brown recluse spider bite on the hand
Chigger bite - close-up of blisters
Flea bite - close-up
Frostbite
Frostbite - hands
Human bites
Inhibited sexual desire
Insect bite reaction - close-up and no protrusion, with my
facialFacial paralysis
Facial tics
Facial trauma proportions also being more equal.
However, this malocclusion was inherited from my Father and I am now in a position where myself and my wife would like to start our own family and I was wondering what percentage of such conditions are hereditary, i.e. are we guaranteed that our children will suffer the same problem I did? If this is the case, how early can it be corrected?
I had an extremely unpleasant time during childhood due to bullying and harassment due to my protruding teeth and would hate to see my kids go through the same.
Also, if it is hereditary, does this mean it is a pre-existing condition in the eyes of insurance companies? We are living in the United States, my own treatment was completed while I was a citizen of the United Kingdom however and it was provided free of charge by the National Health Service as it was determined that the malocclusion affected me medically due to an abnormal bite and clicking jaw. Will we be able to get coverage for treatment? If not, is there a ballpark figure for this type of treatment?