To keep it short, I injured my shoulder in a blunt force trauma accident and had 0% strength/ROM due to swelling. After 1 month I regain almost all ROM with little pain. 2 months, full ROM and no pain.
But my ortho got the results back from my MRI and told me I have a dislocated biceps tendon that is rubbing my subscap tendon and "sawing it in half" thus requiring me to have a biceps tenodesis. I am going on month 3 right now with full strength/ROM, no pain, no popping/clicking, and my "injured" arm feels more stable then my non injurged shoulder.
So my question is, wouldn't I have even the slightest pain if 2 tendons were literally sawing away at eachother? And why does this require a tenodesis instead of just placing the biceps tendon back into the groove and anchoring it down with a synthetic material?
Well, without knowing the relevant clinical details or a detailed clinical evaluation, it would be difficult to comment specifically on the situation. Though it is possible not to have any symptoms and good range of motion with mild tendon injury/ inflammation/ degeneration, the decision of a surgical correction may or may not be justified without the presence of more than mild changes or specific symptoms. I would suggest considering a second opinion with another orthopedician at this time and if the two doctors agree for a surgical intervention without regard to an initial conservative approach, one may go ahead with the management suggested.
Hope this is helpful.
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