Aa
A
A
Close
Avatar_universal
crash report
I was involved in a road accident xmas day 2009, i was teated for a frozen shoulder however the pain continued and after 10 months was referred to an MRI scan and Xray, mri showed that my supraspinatus was severed, I was seen by an orthopeadic surgeon Feb 2012 who wrote a report which stated that I had a partial tear pre-existing, I have never had the effected shoulder examined prior to the accident as I have never had any problems with that shoulder,
the report states that the full tear has been accelerated by 2 years, I am quite confused as to why this diagnosis could be made that there was a partial tear not befor the accident but over 2 years later, there was no statement as to the degree of the partial tear as this was unknown and non existant as far as i am aware, so without an actual degree of any partial tear then I believe that the statement regarding a partial tear and  acceleration is unsubstantiated  and is basically an assumption , can anyone help me with this question
regards to all
Cancel
2 Answers
Page 1 of 1
1711789_tn?1361311607
Hi there!

I understand that there was a primary MRI done in 2009 that described a partial tear of the supraspinatus and in 2012 the previous MRI was read by an orthopedician who described a pre-existing tear since 2009 which probably has accelerated now. I assume the later was based on a physical examination if a repeat MRI was not done. If there was mention of a previous tear before the accident actually happened, I am not sure what this assumption could be based on. I would suggest discussing this with your treating orthopedician.
Hope this helps.

Take care!
Comment
Cancel
1711789_tn?1361311607
Comment
Comment
Submit Comment
Avatar_universal
Hi thanks for the reply, the accident was dec 25 2009, the Mri scan and Xray was not  done until oct 2010, I was examined by the orthopeadic surgeon in feb 2012, the report was that the xray was suggestive of a pre-existing partial tear. and goes on to say that the accident accelerated a full thiockmess tear by 2 years, but I feel that if the partial tear is based on an assumption then the acceleration period is also based on the same assumption which makes a huge difference to my claim.
your help is really appreciated thanks so much
Comment
Cancel
Avatar_universal
Comment
Comment
Submit Comment
Your Answer
Avatar_universal
Answer
Know how to answer? Tap here to leave your answer...
Answer
crash report
Submit Answer
A
A
Blank
Weight Tracker
Weight Tracker
Start Tracking Now
Orthopedics Community Resources