Dr. Goodman, I am a bit befuddled as I was diagnosed with Stage 1A Clear Cell OV CA in 3/2006, had complete TAH/BSO, 6 cycles chemo, all CA125 test and PET/CT scans up until yesterday completely normal, CA125 test in June 2010 was 5.9, had another one yesterday but don't what the # is. Had a PET/CT scan yesterday which showed a soft tissue density mass posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach measuring 2.6cm AP x 2.6 cm transverse (this is new from PET/CT of 11/2009) not opacified with contrast less likely to respresent loop of small bowel, felt to be nodal mass. Did have associated FDG uptake on pet component within lesion with a maximum SUV of 3.69 on ct slice. It goes on to state that there is no FDG uptake in cervical or supraclavicular nodal region, abdominal, periaortic, aortocaval, pelvic, inguinal or femoral nodes. No omental thickening
It's been confirmed on the dedicated CT that this is a nodual mass. I am stunned. MY PCP and my gyn/oncologist have spoke and they will be doing a biopsy to confirm that it is ovarian tumor, but are rather confident that it is, and will probably end up doing surgery and more chemo.
I know no one can tell me how this happened, I know it is due to the clear cell histology, I am just scared, terrified frankly that now that this cancer has shown that it will re-occur with in a 5 year period, will this just keep happening and happening, over and over again? The doctors are saying since I responded so well to the carboplatin/taxotere chemo that I should do the same again.
I am worried about the surgery again, they are saying this tumor is interposed between the posterior wall of the stomach and the tail of the pancreas, the doctor says that it's a big surgery, but doable. Any advice you may have is greatly appreciated.