I am actually asking this cuz of my fiance. He "failed" his urine test for NOT having Percocet in his system when in fact he did have some just not that often. So, due to this the discharged him from their pain clinic with nothing. Now, back to primary MD and he won't give him even something lower (that he himself USED to prescribe) because he had a "dirty urine". I just don't get it fully. I KNOW my finace did not sell them or anything like that, I dunno how much he took for sure when but I am boggled. My question is how it would not show up in his urine, did he not take enough somehow? I'm lost sorry. Please any info. would be great. Thanks! Sheila
A "dirty urine" test does not mean that there was nothing found in it. It doesn't mean that the Percocet didn't show up, though I'm not saying that didn't happen too. What "dirty urine" means it that it contained something it should not have had in it. We use that reference to drug screens when THC is found in the urine or other drugs that should not be there.
Did your fiancee use that term or is it one that you are using because you think it fits? If that term was used by the lab or clinic it means just what I said. If he takes Percocet only PRN (as needed) and he hasn't needed them recently maybe he will do ok on a non-narcotic pain reliever. That would also explain why they found none in his urine....but it would not explain the term "dirty urine."
Drug screens can be wrong. I see a post regarding just that at least every 3 or 4 weeks or more. I cannot judge what may have happened with your fiancees drug screen but I do know he will be hard pressed to find a physician that will order narcotics for him again. You did not mention why he has pain. Is this a long term back issue? Much will depend on his diagnosis if he has a chance of finding another PM Clinic that will treat him. And much will depend on what the drug screen revealed, wrong or right.
Good luck to you. Please feel free to post again and let us know how you and your fiancee is doing. Peace, Tuck
I'm wondering how the Medication in question was prescribed? If it was on a "as needed" basis, then there would be no justification for dropping the patient. If the Percocet was prescribed in a certain manner like 1-2 every 4-6 hrs. then the patient has something to worry about because there should be a certain amount in his system.
What I'm saying is that it is possible that they thought if there was not enough in his system, the Doctor might have figured that he either didn't need the Pain Management anymore or he was selling the script.
If something else was found in the system like Morphine, then it is possible that the Percocet metabolized itself. I have an excellent article in my journals that you should read concerning how opiates metabolize once in the body. Please read it. It may help.
According to the heading on the post the Percocet was ordered PRN, which as you know means as needed. As needed should allow you to skip a day or even two. He should not have been dismissed from the program if this were the case. Unless as both you and I suggested his pain level is not so high as to warrant PM.
Again I think it is the term "dirty urine" that may have been the key to his discharge by the PMP. But I am just guessing.
Lipsie, can you shed some light on this and help us understand better so we may provide you with additional suggestions.
Thank you for your response. First, he does have bulged disc and bone spurs in his back so yes its a ongoing problem of his. Actually our family MD we say afterwards told him that it looks bad for a "dirty" urine test. So really that is whom said that. But they did indeed drop him. And he says he had a couple the day before. Wouldn't that show? I just posted myself. They pulled a test on me afterwards but mine was NOT PRN! Thank you for all your help. Sheila
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