If guy number one had orgasmed within a couple of hours of the time you had sex (in other words, before but not much before it) and had not peed in the interim, there could have been sperm in his pre-ejaculatory fluid when he had sex with you. He would not need to have ejaculated again. How far apart in days were the two encounters, and how sure are you that you were ovulating when you had sex with guy number two? If the encounters were close together, you will need to do a DNA test.
They were 5 days apart. Guy number one and I did foreplay before lol so the precum would have already been passed. I started Jan27 had "sex" with guy A Feb 9th and he went limp then Guy B on the 14th and he ejaculated inside of me. Then two weeks later im pregnant.
"so the precum would already have passed" is incorrect. He would continue to make fluid from his Cowper's gland throughout, until he came or got limp.
Unfortunately, you can't count on 5 days time apart. You are still in a more likely position with the second guy, but when the two incidents were that close together, you will need a DNA test. It's only fair to the baby (as well as the prospective dads).
guy A was on day 13 of your cycle and guy B was on day 18. it depends on how long your periods are. if they are 28 days every month then more than likely it was guy A but if they are longer than 28 days or irregular it is very hard to say and only a DNA test would tell.
you can undergo amniocentesis for a DNA test but this CAN be dangerous to your baby and cause a miscarriage...a DNA test after the birth is safer, but may not be possible. depends on your situation.
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