I know you're not supposed to ejaculate within 48 hours of having a PSA test. Now this is a very important question to me: Is it OK to have intercourse withOUT ejaculation? Because I did, and was planning to do it again tonight, until this started worrying me. Like I can't find enough to worry about since my diagnosis and before deciding on treatment. I'm wondering if intercourse would stir things up enough in the prostate to raise PSA even without ejaculation. If so, I already did that yesterday.
My last PSA, which was before my biopsy, was 8.8 - I'm afraid it's going to have gone up another 2 points in less than month like it did when it went from 6.7 in January to 8.8 in February. I followed the rule prior to the 8.8 result but not the 6.7, so I also wonder if it even really matters in my case. My point in getting another PSA (along with a testosterone count) is to establish a baseline against which to measure future treatment.
Help? Like, now?
(I clicked "post question" but nothing happened, so this may appear twice. If so, apologies for pushing the page. I didn't mean to.)
In theory, any irritation on the prostate can increase the PSA level.
However, I don't think there is a specific guide to estimate how much intercourse can affect the result. There are doctors who feel that a DRE may be enough to affect results - others think it too minimal an activity. Whether or not there is enough pressure on the prostate that could affect the test without ejaculation would be a lot harder to estimate.
If you are worrying, then it may be better to abstain for a while in order to get a result without any thought bubbles in your mind to question its validity, since you would be using it to measure treatment effect.
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