I think we are getting confused, because genital herpes infects the sacral ganglia. That means anyone who has genital herpes can get obs anywhere that the nerves go.
Its misleading to say sacral herpes, when that is genital herpes. Just because the outbreak is in a different spot, and not directly on the genitals doesn't mean its not genital herpes.
The person who gets outbreaks on the butt, for example, will still shed from the mucous membranes in the genital area, even if they never have an ob directly on the genitals. Its all "genital herpes" if its below the waist.
The virus infects groups of nerves. The same group of nerves connect the sacral area and the genitals. Thus if you have herpes in the "boxer shorts area" it is considered genital herpes.
To specifically address your questions...
1. Outbreaks typically stay around the same area as the initial infection. However they can move to different locations.
2. If Partner A has sacral HSV2 outbreaks and has sex with Partner B who has genital HSV2 outbreaks, it does not necessary mean that Partner A will have outbreaks on their genitals.
- Partner A could eventually get them on their genitals without having sex with partner B...anything in the boxer shorts regions is fair game for outbreaks
- It would be difficult for Partner B to re-infect Partner A in the genitals because Partner A already has antibodies to HSV2.
- Maybe if Partner B was having an outbreak and Partner A was having a weak immune day, then it could happen, but this would be rare.
Thank You Emma and AJ
Does this mean wherever an outbreak initially started is where it will always be or can it in fact change Site at any given time if both partners have outbreaks in different places to eachother?
i.e .... Is it possible the person who gets only Genital outbreaks could then start to get them in the Sacral area as well as Genitals and the one with Sacral only outbreaks then start to get them in the Genitals as well ..... or would both continue to have their outbreaks where they always have them....
Daisy
If someone has a sacral infection, they already have it genitally. For example, if one person gets outbreaks on their genitals, and the other on their butt, they both have genital herpes.
The person who gets obs on their butt wouldn't necessarily ever get obs on the genitals because their partner gets it on the genitals. Does that make sense?
Its all about what nerve pathway the virus chooses to travel in where they'd get obs.
Aj
I'm not 100% sure, but I know Dr. Handsfield has said on the Expert's Forum that unprotected sex is ok with a monogomous couple that both have HSV-2. I'm not sure about sacral/genital herpes though. However, I would assume if the partner already had HSV-2, they would be immune to getting the infection anywhere else on their body.
Best,
Em