Hello,
1 year after breaking up, my ex-girlfriend recently tested negative for HIV & Syphilis; however unfortunately she didn't do a STD panel alongside. She came to me for an opinion in regards to this matter, and I advised her that perhaps testing for STD's is sensible as well, granted her concern: She frequently suffers a condition commonly known as "Bartholin's Cyst or Abscess" if I'm not mistaken -- a swelling on her left side labia which periodically comes & goes. She believes she contracted this condition sexually approximately 7 or 8 years ago, through brief contact of a sexual nature with a male whose sexual history is questionable.
She's nearly 25 now, and according to her she contracted this condition when she was 17 years old -- since then she's had 2 minor surgeries on different occasions where the doctors recommended that a tiny hole be made where fluid build-up can drain out thus relieving her of pain & discomfit (2nd time she did this was early last year). Now, recently when I met her, one thing led to another and we got slightly intimate & just made out, nothing else. She later informed the next day in the evening that her swelling on the left side has once again accelerated & is causing her discomfort, she kept saying that over the years whenever she's gotten slightly "aroused" -- her swelling on the left side flares up shortly after. After doing some research of my own, I've come to understand that Gonorrhea or Chlamydia are one of the prime causes for Bartholin's Abscess when it's contracted sexually.
(1) Is there a possibility that she's had Gonorrhea or Chlamydia all these years without knowing it (like for the last 7,8 years without any other symptoms)?
(2) If she indeed does have either one, was I at risk of contracting these when I practiced unprotected sex with her a few times in 2007?
(3) What's the treatment for someone who's had 7-8 yrs untreated chlamydia? Is it dangerous at that point, or still treatable usually?
Any guidance would be appreciated :)
Thank you.