Hi,
I have recently read about syphilis and how it could be transmitted by oral sex. Last time I received oral sex from a sex worker was more than a year ago. I do not remember having the rash on body or palms. I had a little firm wart of pimple on my penis and I remember it was itchy. After reading about syphilis, I have been so worried about transmitting this probable infection to my wife, so I went and had blood test: here are the results:
RPR : non-reactive
Titre : non-reactive methodology: Carbon Agglutination
TPHA (S) : negative < 1:80
Titre:negative < 1:80 methodology: Haemagglutinati on
So, this means that I do not have syphilis. My concern is that I might have had it before and because of getting some antibiotics of different kinds for different diseases during the last year, It might have disappeared. Now, what if it was there before and I may have transmitted it to my wife? Is that possible although my test shows that I do not have it. Do I need to ask my wife to go and have blood test to make sure that she is fine? Please tell me whether I can have peace of mind depending on the results of this test or not? I do not want to cause her any pain be asking her to do that and then we will have issues in our relationship. Another question I have is what if I did not have the body or palm rash, does this mean that I was not infected? Many thanks in advance for your reply and elaborate explanation.