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STDs (Expert Forum)
6 week hiv test is enough in my case?
Answered by
University of Washington
Seattle - WA
Welcome to the STD Forum, which is intended only for questions and support pertaining to sexually transmitted diseases other than HIV/AIDS, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, human papillomavirus, genital warts, trichomonas, other vaginal infections, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), cervicitis, molluscum contagiosum, chancroid, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). All questions will be answered by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. or Edward W Hook, MD.
6 week hiv test is enough in my case?
by superfrodo, Mar 29, 2006 12:00AM
Hi Dr.
This is refer to my previous thread regarding receiving unprotected oral from a HIV+ bodyworker.
http://www.medhelp.org/perl6/STD/messages/2516.html
I took HIV antibody test (3rd generation test) both at 28th day(4 week) and 42th day after the event, both came back negative. Is that sufficient enough? Or should I take the test again at the 13 week mark?
Reading from different websites, I see number like 1/1000, or 3/200 for catching HIV. And it appears to me that figures like 1/1000 is already considered as high risk (like unproected intercourse and such). But 1/1000 is still low in terms of percentage, right? Do these number assume 1 is HIV- and 1 is HIV+? I suppse 1/1000 means, for 1000 times risk events (between a hiv- and a hiv+), the change to get infected with hiv+ is only 1?
Thanks.
This is refer to my previous thread regarding receiving unprotected oral from a HIV+ bodyworker.
http://www.medhelp.org/perl6/STD/messages/2516.html
I took HIV antibody test (3rd generation test) both at 28th day(4 week) and 42th day after the event, both came back negative. Is that sufficient enough? Or should I take the test again at the 13 week mark?
Reading from different websites, I see number like 1/1000, or 3/200 for catching HIV. And it appears to me that figures like 1/1000 is already considered as high risk (like unproected intercourse and such). But 1/1000 is still low in terms of percentage, right? Do these number assume 1 is HIV- and 1 is HIV+? I suppse 1/1000 means, for 1000 times risk events (between a hiv- and a hiv+), the change to get infected with hiv+ is only 1?
Thanks.
Doctor's Answer
by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Mar 29, 2006 12:00AM
, Mar 29, 2006 12:00AM
Sigh.... I know you are concerned, and I do not mean to minimize the anxieties you undourbedly are feeling. But this is yet another basically unnecessary question because the answers are obvious and have been addressed many times. (See my "shout" in "HIV testing time..." earlier today.)
My answers in innumerable other threads clearly indicate that the odds you cite are for transmission risk when one person is HIV+ and the other is not. And surely you know that "1/1000 is low in terms of percentage"; 1/1000 = 0.1%. In your other thread we discussed the near-zero risk of receiving unprotected oral sex. Please also read the discussion in yesterday's thread "Please could we clarify this".
You can be 100% confident you didn't acquire HIV during the exposure you described. But the level of anxiety implied by your need to ask the question probably means you should be tested at 3 months. I doubt you will sleep well without it.
HHH, MD
My answers in innumerable other threads clearly indicate that the odds you cite are for transmission risk when one person is HIV+ and the other is not. And surely you know that "1/1000 is low in terms of percentage"; 1/1000 = 0.1%. In your other thread we discussed the near-zero risk of receiving unprotected oral sex. Please also read the discussion in yesterday's thread "Please could we clarify this".
You can be 100% confident you didn't acquire HIV during the exposure you described. But the level of anxiety implied by your need to ask the question probably means you should be tested at 3 months. I doubt you will sleep well without it.
HHH, MD
