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Asymptomatic Chlamydia/PID
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Asymptomatic Chlamydia/PID

OK. I'm nineteen and female. I was recently diagnosed with Chlamydia and want to know if my situation is plausible. I don't want to worry about the status my current relationship if I don't have to. It's a bit of a long question but I wanted to supply a lot of details just in case.

I lost my virginity 2008 to a virgin and continued that sexual relationship for a year afterwards. When we broke up he immediately started having sex with another girl (who'd had several partners), so there was a lot of speculation about whether he'd cheated on me or not. I'm still not sure.
I then started having protected (condom) sex with a guy who'd had two previous partners (one a virgin, one not). I "hooking up" (manual/oral sex only) with my current boyfriend at the same time. My current boyfriend and I got together properly about two months after my big break up. We started having sex in December 2009 and haven't stopped since. We also engaged in two episodes of anal sex (with a condom and without). We have now been in a sexual relationship for over two years.

He had been with 2 other girls before me (neither virgins) and then had a year and a half break (dated, no sex) before we started sleeping together. I don't know if he had oral sex with anyone during that time.

I was diagnosed with Chlamydia this past January. I took two giant pills, told not to have sex for a week at least, and was sent home. When I told my boyfriend he said he hadn't cheated. I know his body language exceptionally well, and based on his reactions over the next few days I believe him. I really don't think he cheated on me. He was tested and treated just in case. I don't know how his results came out.

However, a condom broke about a month later so in the event the infection hadn't totally cleared we both could have been re-exposed. If he gave it to me and he didn't cheat, he would have been originally infected at least five years ago. If I gave it to him, it could only have come from one of my two previous partners, which means I would have had it in my system for two and half years now. This is a possibility, since I started getting a lot of "UTI's" and yeast-like infections about six months after I started seeing my current boyfriend exclusively.They've been on/off ever since bit I assumed I just had a finicky vagina. That's the only 'symptom' I can really think of.

Can Chlamydia be asymptomatic for six months? How about two years? Are UTI-like symptoms consistent with Chlamydia infections? What about my boyfriend? Obviously I'm concerned that he might have slept with someone else recently, but I'm trying to keep that out of my head.

I'm currently experiencing moderate pelvic pain (nowhere near ovulation and as if someone is poking me really hard in the ovary). It started about a week ago and has been going on far longer than what I believe are ovulation pains. I'm very concerned that having Chlamydia for two and a half years could have lead to PID and possibly irreversible damage to my reproductive system. I've been told, however, that if I had PID I would be absolutely doubled over in pain. There is a chance that I could be pregnant, but I'd have to wait ten more days to see.

I have a doctor's appointment scheduled for next week (the earliest I could without huge copays) but am hoping for some ideas/advice in the meantime.
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6 months...yes, 2 years in a woman yes. The UTI's could have been, but did you see a Dr and get tested? Also how/why did you test now?
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