Hey y'all. I've read that hand warts cannot spread to your genitals due to them being caused by different viruses. At the risk of this being a dumb question, does the same logic apply in reverse? Can genital warts spread to your hands? Can they infect your hands in any way? Thanks (please only people who truly know the answer, no guesses).
I have another question. I will start off by explaining what I understand about the issue I'm about to relay, all I'm asking is if you can confirm whether or not I understand it completely. Here it goes.
OK, genital warts can only physically manifest where there has been direct skin-to-skin contact, correct? I have read that it is possible to get an anal wart without having anal sex, but I mean the underlying principle at work here was that there was some kind of direct skin-to-skin contact between a wart and the area around your anus regardless of whether or not that skin-to-skin contact was due to having anal sex or not; I mean the factor to be considered is whether or not a wart came in contact with the skin around your anus, correct?
Or, is it possible for a genital wart to manifest in an area where there was no direct skin-to-skin contact if by chance the wart has just chosen to manifest itself there? For example, if you only had penile-vaginal sex with no skin-to-skin contact with a wart and your anus, but only a wart and your penis, then the warts, if the person actually does get visible symptoms, can only manifest on the penis, correct? Or is it possible for a wart to manifest ONLY around your anus given there was only direct skin-to-skin contact with your penis? To my understanding, this is impossible, but it is possible, given there was only contact between a wart and your penis for warts to manifest firstly on your penis and then spread to the anus, but not possible to contract the wart through penile-vaginal contact and then a wart to manifest solely on the anus... or is that possible?
I hope I made sense. A reply would be appreciated, thanks.
I guess as a supplement to the above post, my question really is... is it possible for a genital wart to manifest SOLELY in an area where there was NO contact (assuming it is not a product of spreading from an area where there was contact to an area where there wasn't)? And if so, what is the scientific grounds of that? How is that possible given the wart virus lives in the epidermis?
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