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STDs  (Expert Forum)
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Chlamydia § Ques. About Transmission § Symptoms
Answered by
University of Washington Seattle - WA
Welcome to the STD Forum, which is intended only for questions and support pertaining to sexually transmitted diseases other than HIV/AIDS, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, human papillomavirus, genital warts, trichomonas, other vaginal infections, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), cervicitis, molluscum contagiosum, chancroid, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). All questions will be answered by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. or Edward W Hook, MD.

Chlamydia § Ques. About Transmission § Symptoms

by SLOhio, Dec 01, 2004 12:00AM
Within the past 2 weeks, I've had burning urination and within the past week, noticed pus coming from my penis. I went to the doctor who did a culture and gave me a one time treatment for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. 4 days have passed and I feel better now, no pus and the doctor called with my results, it was positive for Chlamydia. I am not surprised by this, but I am puzzled by it. I have been married for 10 years. Within the last 5 years I have had around 5 or 6 other sexual encounters. Some were unprotected oral or vaginal sex. Also, for the past 6 months I have been seperated from my wife and living with another woman. She is on the pill and we do not use condoms. My puzzlement comes from this: From what I understand, if you do develop symptoms from Chlamydia, they usually occur within the first 1 to 3 weeks after exposure. Since I have never developed anything in the past 5 years and I know my wife has not been with another man, I would assume it came from my girlfriend. I am fine with that, but I would also want to assume she has been faithful to me in the 6 months we've been together. So what I want to know is: is it possible for her to have had Chlamydia all this time (longer than 6 months), but I only "caught it", or at least got symptoms, just recently? If she is the source, would her infection had to have happened sooner (meaning during the six months we were together)? The other side is, could I have picked it up before I even met her (the encounter would have been about a year ago), but only gotten symptoms now? Is that possible? I hope this all makes sense. I just want to understand how I suddenly developed symptoms after most likely having it or being exposed for such a long time. Thanks for any insight.

SL

by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Dec 01, 2004 12:00AM
You probably acquired chlamydia 1-3 weeks (perhaps as long as 6 weeks) before your symptoms began; the chance you have been carrying the infection for more than a year is extremely low (but not zero).  Women, on the other hand, can carry chlamydia for months without having symptoms, perhaps even for years, so this event does not necessarily mean your girlfriend has had other partners since you have been together.  You almost certainly acquired the infection from her, but if you are otherwise confident she has been faithful, I would believe it.

Presumably your partner has been treated.  If not, make sure that happens and don't have sex with her until at least a week after both of you have completed treatment.

Good luck--  HHH, MD
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