You clearly had
pelvicKegel exercises
Pelvic adhesions
Pelvic inflammatory disease (pid)
Pelvic laparoscopy
Prostatitis - nonbacterial
Uterine prolapse inflammatory disease (PID) due to chlamydia. Assuming you had no other partners, you acquired it from your partner. Most likely that happened more recently than January 2003; it is uncommon for a woman to carry chlamydia for 18 months without problems and then get symptoms. However, there probably are exceptions--so there may be a chance your partner is being truthful in saying he had no other partners since 2003. However, although BV may or may not be sexually transmitted, it often is a sign of STD risk--so I am suspicious you were infected around that time.
There are several ways your partner could have been infected but still had a negative test in Feb '05. Chlamydia clears up on its own without treatment, typically within several weeks or months, so he could have been infected at one time, and still had a negative test later. Or perhaps he took antibiotics in the meantime. Or perhaps his test was falsely negative (depending on what test was done).
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
1. Chlamydia resolved itself, which seems to happen primarily in men.
2. The test wasn't done right or when the culture was taken, a good specimen wasn't taken.
A properly used condom that doesn't break and remains inplace is 100% protection against acquiring chlamydia or any other infection in the urethra.
HHH, MD
HHH, MD
I am scheduled to get my test done tomorrow where my penis will be swabbed by my doctor.
I had absolutely no reason or symptoms of this disease (penis discharge, burning, etc.), which I read on webmd.com is not uncommon.
My question is this - does chlamydia ever go away?
HHH, MD