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Confused

Confused

I have had cold sores on my lips since I was a kid. I have always been careful because I thought I could transfer this to the genital region and wind up with genital herpes. My GP said this was true but my gynecologist recently told me that it wasn't that since I already had the antibodies in my system I could not tranfer it to another part of my body.  Which is true?

I was concerned because the day after having protected sex I had a flushed heated fealing in my genital area. The area co-incided with where I had had a bikini wax a few days before that. But there was a little itching and tingling. I noticed a few small red bumps on my buttocks but no lesions. I was worried that somehow I had infected myself since my partner has no symptoms. I went to my gynecologist who said it was not herpes and is treating it for a yeast infection. Does that sound correct?

I had posted this question on the dermatology site then realized this was probably the more appropriate location. Thanks for the info
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Your gynecologist is right, your GP is wrong.  Self-transmission of herpes to a second site on the body is called autoinoculation.  It occurs fairly frequently during initial HSV infections, before the immune system kicks in.  For example, during initial oral or genital herpes, HSV sometimes causes a lesion of the finger (herpetic whitlow) or can be transmitted to the eye (herpetic keratitis).  But once the infection has been established for a few weeks, autoinoculation is extremely rare, if it occurs at all.

I can't compete with the diagnosis of a gynecologist who actually has examined you; the yeast diagnosis probably is correct.  If it is herpes, you didn't acquire it from your own oral infection.  In any case, 1 day after exposure is too soon for herpes symptoms to appear, but yeast may first be noticed soon after sex.

I'm pretty sure you'll get a similar response from Dr. Rockoff on the dermatology forum.  Let both of us know if our replies disagree with one another.

Good luck--  HHH, MD
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