I have been with my GF for the past year. We're both around 30 yrs old. She had a full STD screening right before we got together, all negative.
I only had bloodwork at my physical last year, they lost the urinalysis, but doc said I was ok. I've never had any signs such as discharge, only a mild prostatitis with frequent need to urinate that comes and goes for the past several years. My GF and I have sex without condoms, she is on birth control.
In the past year, I've received unprotected oral from sex workers 4 times up until Feb.'06, and so far have not had any problems.
Then this past month, on 8/17, I saw another prostitute and received about 1 minute of unprotected oral, then some intercourse with a condom.
I felt some tingling and burning on the tip of my penis the next day with urge to urinate often,no discharge or rash, but from what I read here I figured it was anxiety. Just to be safe, I took 1g of azithromycin exacly 24 hours after exposure.
I then saw my GF about 36 hours after I took the azithro, which is 60 hours after exposure, and we had unprotected sex. I know she's been faithful to me.
Anyway, 5 days after we had sex, on 8/25, she comes down with severe itching and slight discharge from her vagina. I feel the same as always, meaning I still have the same mild prostatitis I've had for years but otherwise normal.
She goes to the OBGYN who does a swab and comes up positive for yeast. She said he used a solution on a q-tip which changed color. This is the first time my GF has ever had a yeast infection,she has NEVER experienced this before, but the doctor attributed it to spending time in a swimming pool 3 weeks ago, which is also something she hasn't done in years. The doc gave her gynazole-1, but she still hasn't had any relief 2 days later. Now I'm worried!!
Did I give her something as a result of the 8/17 exposure, or could she have yeast, and this is just a fantastic coincidence?
Could it be something I've given her from before 8/17 that just chose to manifest symptoms now? (it was never conclusive whether or not I carried gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis or trich before our relationship started last year). In the past year she had antibiotics for UTI in Nov.'05 and antibiotics for pneumonia in May '06, but if I had something I could just be reinfecting her, right?
Both of us are otherwise healthy and not on any meds besides the Nuva-ring for birth control.
Please help! We both plan on getting a full screening, but not until the end of this week. For the sake of my relationship I just would like to know how likely it is that my dalliance on 8/17 led to her condition.
Yeast infections are not sexually transmitted. It's pretty easy to accurately diagnose yeast infections, so that diagnosis probably is realiable. You didn't transmit the yeast to her. Most women normally carry yeasts in their vaginas; symptoms occur when they grow to higher numbers, not because they catch yeast from another person.
However, it is possible your partner has more than one thing going on; dual infections are not uncommon. And it's also true that herpes can be confused with yeast and can cause similar symptoms. But your partner's symptoms sound classical for yeast. On balance, most likely yeast is the only problem and you probably didn't give her anything, or that you caught anything from the exposures you describe. However, I'm not sure how to interpret your "prostatitis" symptoms. Chlamydia and nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) cause similar symptoms.
The only way to know for sure is to do exacttly as you plan, to have comprehensive routine STD screening. (Your partner's doc might already have tested her for some STDs, such as gonorrhea and chlamydia.) All else is just speculation. But my bet is that it turns out to be yeast only and no STD is involved.
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