I'll try to help. But most likely you're never going to know for sure where your chlamydial infection came from or when you were infected.
When a new STD first appears in an apparently monogmous couple, usually one or the other has had other partners. That certainly was the case in most such cases I have cared for over the years. So if you haven't had other sex partners since you and your husband were together, the odds are that he has. I don't say that to accuse your husband of lying. It is the usual explantion, but not the only one.
Could you have carried chlamydia since before you were together? Yes. Women often carry chlamydia for 2 years, sometimes 4 years or more. However, this is unlikely in your case, because your previous test should have diagnoed it; and when chlamydia causes symptoms, it is usually soon after the infection. In other words, it is uncommon for someone to carry chlamydia for months or years without symptoms, and then start getting vaginal discharge etc.
Another possibllity is that your chlamydia test was false. No test is perfect. However, the modern tests are very good, and this isn't a very good bet either. And it also would not explain your vaginal discharge and other symptoms.
Yet another possibility is that your husband has been infected since before you were married, without symptoms and only recently transmitted the infection to you. This also is unlikely, because carrying chlamydia so long is uncommon for men; and most likely you would have been infected much sooner.
In summary, I cannot solve the mystery. Statistically, it seems most likely that your husband has had at least one other partner recently and brought the infection into your relationship. (Of course, this assumes your story is accurate, i.e. you have had no other partners the past year and a half.) It all comes down to whether you trust him or not. If he seems truthful, most likely he is -- but only you can make that call. Aside from that, most likely you're never going to know for sure.
At this point, the most important thing is that you and your husband both are treated, and that you not have sex until both have completed the antibiotic.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Of course, this isn't as common, but it is possible. It's a shame that relationships can be ruined because this isn't explained to people better.
First, respiratory infections are caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae or, rarely, C. psittici (which comes from birds) -- different bacteria than C. trachomatis, the cause of genital infection. Second, chlamydia doesn't travel through the body; you can't catch a respiratory infection that shows up as genital infection. Finally, the standard tests for chlamydia are specific for one chlamydia species or the other; that is, the tests for C. trachomatis do not detect C. pneumoniae. (There are blood tests for chlamydia that can cross react between the two types. But blood testing is not recommended to diagnose genital infection and rarely used for that purpose.)
Apologies to "informyourself" if this modifies your perceptions about the source of your infection. But the facts are the facts.
This forum is not a counseling site and I will not comment on sexual relationships. I have stated the scientific knowledge about chlamydia transmission as I understand it. That's as far as this forum can go.
Thanks for the thanks. But that's it for this thread. I will delete any further comments.
did the treatment for chlamydia get rid of your symptoms?
just wondering if this could be false positive chlamydia test and instead you just have bacterial vaginosis.
But sounds like Chlamydia.
Dr. Handsfield, can someone be a carrier of Chlamydia and then get symptoms years later?
what is the risk of male to female transmission of Chlamydia in any 1 vaginal intercourse? if they had infrequent sex, could the man have been a carrier of chlamydia and only passed it to his wife after 1.5 years?
That will have to do it for this thread. Feel free to continue additional discussion on the STD community forum.