1. For either Chlamydia or Gonorrhea, is it possible for a married couple to unknowingly have the STD throughout their entire marriage of 12+ years, and to ping-pong the STD back and forth in an unending cycle?
2. I am curious if what I read at http;//www.std-gov.org/stds/gonorrhea.htm, has any basis of truth. It states that:
a) 2/3 of women and 1/2 of men who have Chlamydia have no symptoms at all; others have symptoms so mild they aren't noticeable.
b) 1/2 of women & 1/10 of men who have Gonorrhea have no symptoms at all.
Thank you very much for whatever information you would be able to provide.
Thank you for you reply. The wife has had no children by preference and the husband had a vasectomy before marriage. Based upon the percentages that I read, isn't it possible that neither partner ever felt an symptoms? And, they just ping-ponged the bacteria between themselves?
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