Thank you for your time.
1. Oral exposure 36 days ago. Performed oral to genital sex on HSV2 woman, who was diagnosed 5.5 years ago. No outbreak at the time. My blood test=negative at 25 days out. Dr. Leone says it's 99% impossible to transfer genital HSV2 to the mouth, and advocates taking these risks. But Dr. Handsfield does not seem to echo that same position in his posts.
-What is the current consensus on that issue, are the risks of female GHSV2 to male oral virtually non-existant?
-Should I assume this is part of the 4% trans. risk to male, over a year when no outbreaks? I have what looks like a very faint lip scab, and two small white dots, visible when my lips are dry, but no sore, puss, redness or bleeding. Symptom?
2. Vaginal intercourse, no condom 21 days ago (3/x, 12 hrs), woman on her period, & sufficient lubrication. She started on Valtrex 2 yrs ago for one year, doctor says stop and take only when an outbreak. Here, she started taking Valtrex again 9 days b/f sex when she noticed a "small skin colored bump" just above her vagina, when had a stomach flu. Bump gone 6 days prior to intercourse. I have not seen any genital symptoms. Blood test=negative at 11 days out. Concerned about exposure, since she was on her period, and whether Valtrex use was enough to mitigate risks by 50%. Her prior boyfriend had unprotected intercourse (2x/wk) and performed oral sex on her (1/x monthly) over 3 yrs & claims no transmission.
-Did her period increase shedding here?
-Should I assume 4% trans. to male, over a year period when no outbreaks, then reduce it to 2% since on Valtrex, then increase it to 3% since on her period? Can we say that if I were to do this 2x/week for a year, my risk would be 3%?
3. Have you ever heard of transmission based on these facts? I know it's possible. I've read a lot of posts about people getting HSV2 genital and oral from one-time encounters with no signs of an OB. How can this be if the risks are 4%?