Hey Doc,
I am confused about something I wanted to see if you could
clearClear by design
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Clear-atadine children's up for me. I am under the impression that HPV is caused only by
strainsStrains 6/11... so if I have a genital wart does that mean it has to be one of those
strainsStrains ? In your post to my "HPV Clearance" question you stated how "Almost everyone has it, or has had it etc..."... I know they may have/had hpv but isn't that different from warts since most
strainsStrains do not cause any symptoms/harm except a few
strainsStrains ? When disclosing this info. to a partner... would saying that I have HPV be enough or would I have to go into detail about having the wart
strainStrains ? I could deal with the fact I had HPV if I had no symptoms but the fact that I have a strain/visible symptoms that only 1% get is what is hard for me to accept. It's hard for me to be apart of that 1%. I recently had a biopsy performed on two growths. A week later the derm called me with results "Results came back normal tissue... minor irritation which is common in young males... But I want to send the tissue back for a closer evaluation just to be sure and make sure they did not miss anything." I was relieved until I got a call the next week "Turn's out to be verruca, they said the growth was "consistent" with a wart. They cannot give a 100% diagnosis which my doctor said they are "covering there *** legally" I want you to come back if you find another and we'll take another culture. My question is...
1.) How can one biopsy be normal and the other abnormal? Is it possible two difference scientists did the inpections thus two different opinions?
3.) Is there any reason to believe that the first diagnosis may have been correct over the second? My derm. just seemed unable to give me a 100% diagnosis as he wants me to come back with another biopsy if I get another wart... Well what if I never get another one? Should I assume I have it and proceed to inform partners from here on out?
I'm sorry for the long post it won't happen again
I look for the HPV FAQ Post but could not find it...
Could you lead me in the direction
Thanks for all your help Doc
-Frank
I mean to say GW is caused by strains 6/11 not hpv
HHH, MD
HPV - Wart Virus
Date 09 February 2005
HOW COMMON IS THE WART VIRUS?
Wart virus is very common - 75% of people from 15 to 49 years of age who are sexually active, have wart virus, or have had it in the past. Only 25% of sexually active people in that age group show no signs of ever having HPV. Most people who have HPV have no idea that they carry the infection.
Only 1% have visible warts
4% have HPV found on a Pap test
10% have sub-clinical HPV that can be found with special pathology tests.
60% have had HPV in the past but have no signs of it at present
http://www.fpahealth.org.au/sex-matters/factsheets/71.html
Here's one of many sources I have found that state this fact. Does that mean that most have the wart strains and do not show symptoms or just out of all people only 1% with hpv cause symptoms? Just seems to me like although HPV is very common... genital warts is not.
Thanks For all your help doc
But HPV 6 and 11 indeed are in the minority; the "high risk" types, those associated with cervical cancer and with most pap smear abnormalities, are quite a bit more common. And there are many other types as well. The large majority cause no symptoms and do not lead to serious health problems.
HHH, MD
Let's just say I had my day, and I assume I have been infected with HPV.
HHH, MD