Good Morning Dr.
I have been in a relationship for the past 6 months.
On Mar 6, 2009 I was tested and everything came back clean.
April, 2009 he said he was tested and everything came back clean.
August15th I was tested again for an IUD insertion and everything came back clean.
August 18th, my boyfriend and I had unprotected sex.
August 26th, I started to experience lower abdominal pain (but only during urination). There was no itching, burning, or odor that accompanied it. I told my boyfriend and he stated that he had been experiencing the same symptoms.
Yesterday, August 31st, we both went to our respective appointments.I was assured that nothing 'seemed' abnormal but am awaiting the results. My boyfriend said that the test came back 'inconclusive'. They aren't sure if he actually has gonorrhea but gave him a shot to be sure. I am getting my antibiotic shot today.
Because of the August timeline, I believe that somewhere between April and August, he went outside of the relationship because I am completely monogamus with my partner (for these reasons). Is it accurate for me to believe that? We only have sex every few weeks so, I even go further to say that the act outside of the relationship had to occurred within the last month. Because of the reactions to the symptoms, is that accurate?
In addition to my aforementioned questions, I would also like to ask:
1. Is it possible for a gonorrhea test to be 'inconclusive'?
2. Is it possible for gonorrhea to lie 'dormant' and not be 'caught' on a test?
3. How long can gonorrhea go undetected? (by either tests or symptoms). A range please...
4. Is it possible that he contracted the disease in late February/early March and it took 6 months for symptoms to arise and for a test to "pick it up"?