I have had several times sexual intercourse with a woman in October 2007, and there were no issue. Mid Novermber, we had another time few sexual intercourse, in the same manner as we did earlier. But after three days, I developed a burning sensing when urinating, and then few days later I have a green discharge from my penis. The intensity of the encounters were the same.
My question is this: how could I not have contracted gonorrhea in the first encounters, while in the last one I seem to have contracted it? Would it be possible for Gonorrhea to remain dormant, and then to get activated for some reason?
The underlying assumption is that both are in a monogomous relationship. Should this assumption be questioned, or Gonorrhea just reacts in an inconsistent manner?
Given the circumstances, it could be that she did not have gonorrhea in October when you had sex with her, but acquired it sometime between October and November, when you had sex with her. Gonorrhea symptoms usually show up between 2-5 days after exposure. It doesn't stay dormant and then activate for some reason, as you suggest.
There's also the possibility that you just got lucky the first few times. However gonorrhea transmission rates are higher than 50%, so even 3+ exposures without contracting it are pretty unlikely statistically. I agree with Tommy, chances are it's a more recent infection..
Many thanks for your comments. Minor follow up: she says that she did not have any sexual encounter with anyone except me since end of August, which means that Septmber, October and November I was her only sexual encounter. But, based on both of your comments and before I jump to the following conclusion, you noted that "Gonorrhea symptoms usually show up between 2-5 days after exposure". Is this true for both men and women? if the answer is yes, then the conclusion of both of your comments is that the underlying assumption of a monogomous relationship should be questioned very seriously, irrespective of what she claims. Or would there be a slight probability that such conclusion could not be made if other factors were taken into account?
One more piece of information could help: in our encounters we had more often than not pretty involved oral sex (both of us), protected and unprotected intercourses. But, vividly I can say that in Mid-October oral sex was very involved, but I did not contract anything. One month later, and lesser oral sex, and I got something. But again, in both times sexual encounters were not restricted to one type of sexual encounter. Does this information change the underlying assumption or your analysis of the situation.
How well can you trust this woman? Did she have symptoms?? ...One thing you do have to take into consideration is that often times men and women, esp women, have NO SYMPTOMS. So, she could have had this infection the whole time and not known. This being said- how come you did not contract it earlier in the relationship? I agree with Tommy and StillHurting- unless you had ONLY protected sex until recently- then tried unprotected sex for the first time- it sounds like a new infection. That's why the 2-5 day thing is pretty accurate. Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection- it will show up and cause problems immediately after entering your body. Either that or you get it and have no idea you have it until it shows up pos on a lab test sometime eventually, or your partner becomes infected from you. It can be contracted from oral sex- but the more likely source of infection was unprotected vaginal sex.... Did she test pos? I mean Im sure she has it, but did she get checked?
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