Please be patient, this is a slightly complex story..
I have had discharge from my penis for nearly 4 weeks now, I was told by my g/f that she had a 'bacteria' infection and so I took medicine for thrush for 3 weeks but the symptoms did not go away.
In the mean time I developed a very swollen foot and ankle.
The Dr at first thought it was sprained but after 1 week of treatment and the symptoms worsening, he then diagnosed gout.
I have been on medication for 20 days now and the symptoms have only lessened slightly.
Today, I went to have a blood test for uric acid levels with regard the gout.
After the test the Dr told me that I did not have gout but now he suspects that I have Gonorrhoea, thus the discharge and swollen/painful ankle and foot. I now have to wait 1 week to get the results of these tests.
I did 'Google' gonorrhoea and saw that a complication can be 'septic arthritis' and this fits the symptoms of my foot/ankle, but I notice it is also very similar to gout. I must admit that I am somewhat worried about this being a possible complication but still have to wait until next week to get the results.
I have had a g/f for just over a year now but as we live some distance apart we did not have sex until January of this year. After January I had no symptoms of anything. We then did not see each other for 2 months as we were in different countries for a while.
However, within 5 weeks of being back together I then started getting these symptoms.
Before being with this g/f I had not had sex for approx. 5 years and she told me she had not had sex for approx. 3 years.
I am obviously not very happy about this.
On talking about it today, she eventually told me she had sex with an ex b/f in July of last year (not 3 years ago), when we were apart (but still considered to be in a relationship with each other).
My dilemma now is that if she contracted gonorrhoea then (July 2010), is it possible that I did not get it in January of this year? even if she was infected then?
Or is it a fact that she must have contracted it between the end of January this year and April, when we were apart again?
Let me add that she says that she has no symptoms at all.
Am I being naive in thinking that she caught it in July 2010 and although we have had sex since then I have only just last month developed symptoms.
I do love this girl and so much want a 'right' answer but I do know that I may have to face the facts (if they prove my point). Of course, if it is definitive that she has had sex with someone else between January and April of this year I know I can no longer continue with the relationship, even though I have moved country to start a new life with her.
Please can anyone give me any advice/suggestions.
Well I can't tell you when she got it. I can tell you that if this is gonorrhea then you probably got it 4-5 weeks ago. Gonorrhea is harder for men to get then woman, so you can have sex with her and not get it just because she has it.
I doubt that your swolen ankle is in relation to gonorrhea. Anything like that normally takes longer then a month. Wait for your results to come in and treat whatever is going on. All I can say is either chalk the cheating by your g/f up to a mistake and move on with the relationship or end things. Search your heart and talk with her.
Also if you are positive for gonorrhea then gf needs to be tested and treated.
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