Right now Dr. H is in Africa, fending off a gorilla with a bamboo stick in one hand and laptop in the other, and you keep asking the same question over and over again.
It is too indirect of a route, go back to the original reply.
Sorry to bother you again.
Could you just clarify the 3-4 minute situation. If the girl finished the guy 3-4 minutes before me, and then, with the wet stuff still on her hands, rubbed the open wound by mistake, should I:
Still Test? Still be worried for my wife?
Sorry to bother you again, but I wasn't sure if you got the time frame involved (so the stuff may still have been wet)
Thanking you in advance.
Obviously you will need to test to get out of the anxiety about it no matter what is told to you. What you are suggesting, even with wet HIV containing sperm (that you don't know was there, and you don't know if it contained HIV even if it was) would take a miracle. You would probably have a CDC investigation done on you if what you are suggesting were to take place. Theoretical at most, it's not going to happen.
I understand what you are saying about the drying effect and I read the article you attached. But it is the 3 or 4 minutes time period I am concerned about. The girl masturbated the guy before me 3 to 4 minutes before massaging my hand with the open wound on it. I am not sure this is enough time for any possible(sperm) to dry before she touched my open wound.
I am not sure she wiped her hands off after the guy before me and what if she touched the wound with 'wet' 'sperm' and the guy was HIV pos.
That is what I am concerned about.
In this senario is it still zero risk? no need to test?
You are simply reasking your original question, to I responded "There is zero chance of HIV (or any other STD) transmission by such an indirect route. You don't need to worry and absolutely should not be tested if the event you describe is your only risk. It would be a waste of money, time and energy." How could I possibly be more clear????
HHH, MD
For the record, the massage on the cut on my hand is the only exposure I had.
All she did in addition to that was touched me a couple of times in my genital area before I told her I wasn't interested in anything more than a normal massage. I think she was trying to get a bigger tip. However, this touching took place about 45 min to an hour after the guy before me so I am assuming the virus would be inactive at that point.
Hi Again,
So there is no way I could have gotten it? I am just concerned because I don't want to be a risk to my wife. I am worried that she didn't wipe her hands off after masturbating the guy before me and then rubbing the wound on my hand.
No need to test? No chance of me having it?
This will probably all be deleted anyway since this is not your thread. But if you are having severe abdominal pain like you have never felt before, you should go to the ER. Maybe you have an appendicitis or something.
I know you are waiting for the Dr., but I can tell you what he is going to say again. There is no way it is possible. Read this, especially the part about zero risk after blood or other fluid has dried. And semen normally has less virus than blood. You're talking about 45 minute old dried semen residue that you don't even know was there. You're obsessing needlessly, trust me I know.
http://www.cdc.gov/hiv/pubs/facts/transmission.htm
I think he was asking medically if a test is warranted due to some persistent "symptom" if the Dr. has already said he has had a zero risk exposure based on the information he has supplied, including this persistent "symptom". As far as ACTUALLY having an STD, to state the 2 would be a contradiction. "zero risk" and "I recommend getting tested".
But yes you are right, you can waste your money on getting as many tests done as you want if it makes you feel better.
When the doctor suggests that someone be tested for an STD even though the transmission risk is zero, he usually notes that this is solely for the individual's peace of mind. The decision to be tested (or not) is up to each individual. There is nothing preventing any one of us from getting as many STD tests as we like. He us simply giving us his recommendation based on the information provided by the person asking the question.
If it is zero risk, then what would be the point of testing? Getting a test would imply some risk has been taking greater than zero.
Dear Doc,I have a general question which is related to this thread. when you say some one is at zero risk do u recommend testing for STDs at all? I had posted a question as a comment in 'Hiv Anxiety' , where you answered that my exposure risk was zero. But I have a severe abdomen pain like i never had before, I am convinced this is related a STD. Pls advise as I do not how to intepret your answer or such answers in general
There is zero chance of HIV (or any other STD) transmission by such an indirect route. Hypothetically, of course you could transmit HIV by intentionally massaging infected secretions into a wound. So what?
You don't need to worry and absolutely should not be tested if the event you describe is your only risk. It would be a waste of money, time and energy.
HHH, MD