HPV Symptoms 3 years later?

Person A (me/male) slept with woman B roughly three (2006) years ago.  There were no other sexual partner in between.  Almost a year later (2007), person A slept with woman C and and has been with only person C since.  Person C showed symptoms for HPV about three months ago (APR 2009).  Now (JUL 2009), person A (me) has started to show symptoms (warts on penis).  She (woman C) says she got it from me.  If so, I had no idea I had it, have not had any symptoms at all, and could only have gotten it from woman B, over three 3 years ago.  I think it might have come from her though she (person C) denies it.  I am going to see a doctor in a couple weeks about this but I was hoping I could get some information a little sooner.  Is this senario possible (assuming that person C has only slept with person A)?  Why did I not have any symptoms until after she did?  Is it more likely that person C gave it to person A?  Sorry if this senario got a little confusing.  Trying to give all of the facts and retain anonymity.  

Thank you.

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

Welcome to the STD forum.

It is unusual, but not impossible, for genital warts to first appear 3 years after exposure.  Most infections become apparent within 2-3 months, if they cause visible warts at all.  It is more likely that the actual source is the partner you last had sex from 3 months ago (I think that's partner C).  However, it's usually not possible to nail down the transmission routes of genital warts or other HPV infection.  Most likely you and your partners are never going to know for sure who gave what to whom and when it happened.  And it really doesn't matter at this point.  The important thing is that everyone be professionally evaluated and treated.  In particular, if your warts are self-diagnosed, maybe you don't have them at all.  If that's the case, see a provider for confirmation of the diagnosis and treatment.

Good luck--  HHH, MD