Hi i am a young male 23 years old. Before 2 years i met my ex-girlfriend. Before sex she told me she
had cervical dysplasia (LGSIL , CIN1) has done colposcopy/biopsy (6 months ago)
Back then she told me that she was lucky she did not have the type that causes cancer.
We had for 1,5 year protected sex with very careful use of condom ( she was concerned about getting another hpv type that would force her to have a procedure)
We are not together now. I asked her ok you did not have anything that causes cancer do you know what type you have then? She told me that they "I dont have 16 nor 18 in fact no HPV DNA was found". I am not sure if she has done HR or HR/LR HPV DNA Test though ( i dont think she even knows). What the doctor told her was that
the viral DNA was not in her own which meant she was in no danger for cancer.
Whats your opinion about the situation here? LR HPV that caused LGSIL or HR HPV that was cleared?
Or even no HPV LGSIL situation (she had a surgery 1 year before finding out about LGSIL for another thing)
Another question now. Assume that there was HPV in the cervix. What are the chances that the condom did not prevent cervix-to-penis transmission. And even if the man has contracted HPV in scortum for example
what are the chances of scortum-to-cervix transmission with the use of condom. My guess is that HPV cannot move from his own in the skin? Am i right?
The situation you describe is a bit hard to follow. I hope my answers will help. PAP smear changes including LGSIL are most often by HPV. As you mention types 16 and 18 are the types most strongly associated with cervical cancer. As cervical abnormalities are graded from ASCUS to LGSIL to HGSIL to cancer, the proportion of lesions in which HPV 16 and 18 are present go up. Thus that your GF had LGSIL does not necessarily mean that she had HPV 16 or 18. If she had cervical surgery or treatment for her LGSIL, it could well have cured her infection and thus no HPV would be present.
To re-state what I understand to be your other question, you would like to know that IF she had HPV at the cervix and you always used condoms, what are your chances of having gotten HPV? The answer is that condoms prevent at least 70% of HPV transmission and probably more. In addition however, even if you got HPV from her, in all probability your own body would have cured it without treatment. This really is not something to worry about.
About my other question. I read all the time that HPV can be transmitted through condoms because it doesn't cover all the skin. If the infected area is cover how is it possible then to be transmitted? My concern is a cervix-to-penile transmission by her and
then a penile-to-cervix tranmission by me to my new girlfriend. I am pretty sure i didnt have HPV prior to my ex- since I had only one 8 month relationship with a virgin.
To my first question again. What are the chances with a negative HPV DNA test
(assume for HR) and HSIL colposcopy CIN1 Biopsy :
1)LR that may be stil there and DNA TEST didnt find it because it was HR
2)HR that was cleared by her system but dysplasia was still there
It is unlikely that you got HPV from the situation that you describe and if you got it, it is unlikely that your HPV infection did not clear.
Sorry, I cannot entertain further what ifs. I appreciate that you are concerned that you might have it and now might pass it on to your new GF. That is unlikely to happen. Unlikely is not a guarantee however. Life is full of risks. In your situation, this risk is low. EWH
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