HPV and Cervical Dysplasi

I was recently diagnosed with having mild-moderate dysplasia and HPV.  I have been trying to read up a little bit more on HPV to try and figure out how I could have got it.  I have been married 2 years and have been with my husband for over 10.  I just need a little piece of mind in dealing with this.  I have read that only about 1/3 of HPV infections are transmitted sexually.  I this correct?  If I did not get it via sexually, then how could I have got it.  I had mild dysplasia about 5 years ago and had the LEEP procedure and have had normal PAPs ever since.  Any thing at this point would be helpful.

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

It is untrue that only 1/3 of HPV infections are sexually acquired.  HPV is a sexually transmitted infection; exceptions probably occur, but they are rare.

If neither you nor your husband has had other sex partners, then you probably have had HPV for over a decade, and it is likely that the same infection caused your dysplasia both 5 years ago and now.  LEEP and other treatments don't necessarily get rid of HPV itself.

It is almost never possible to know with certainty when HPV was acquired or from which sex partner (unless, of course, someone has only had one lifetime partner).  Getting HPV is normal; it happens to at least 80% of us, usually within our first 3-4 lifetime sex partners.  At this juncture, just deal with the dysplasia, i.e. follow your doctor's recommendations for treatment and follow-up.  But don't lose sleep over where the infection came from; it's a no-win situation with no clear answers.

And by the way, nothing need be done about your husband if there is nothing visibly wrong, and you don't need to avoid sex with him or use condoms.

Good luck.  And really, don't let this worry you!

HHH, MD