Hopefully this question(s) provide some insight or educates others as well as myself. approx 2 weeks ago I was with a girl, and she had a glass "YooHoo" bottle she was drinking. I took 3 sips out of it not remembering she had a dried up cold sore on her mouth. less than a year ago I was tested and neg for HSV-1 and 2. Im aware Im succeptible. I probably went over board in that I washed my hands before having to touch myself "downstairs" etc. because I could never remember whether i Laid a hand on my mouth,if i didnt wash my hands I washed my genital area thoroughly. I was real nervous/paranoid. Autoinoculation I was aware could be spread during INITIAL attack, which I had no idea whether one was coming or not. on the 12th day/night, I slipped and maybe laid a hand on my genitals for the duration it takes to urinate...no signs of any out break for those 12 days or evr in my life. I may have touched my mouth at somepoint prior, i dnt know. My questions are:
1.am I at risk for auto inoculating myself due to the Possible recent/first infection, even when after 12 days, there have been NO signs and dont even know if i touched my mouth. it is now 15 days and still no signs.....Do i need to be concerned or should i Put it out of my mind as a zero or too little risk to worry about
2. Was I going overboard in the whole washing genitals thoroughly SO OFTEN if i forgot to wash my hands before touching them,
I have 2 more questions I may follow up with due to the 2000 character limit max.
This is an STD site and orally transmitted herpes doesn't qualify. But the risk of oral HSV transmission surely is zero or close to it via a soda pop bottle shared with someone with dried up oral herpes lesions (which probably were no longer infectious even with kissing). And I'll bet nobody in the world ever got genital herpes in this setting.
The answers are 1) no, there is not risk; and 2) yes, you went more overboard than I would have thought possible.
The purpose the 2000 character limit is to force people to ask all their questions in the initial thread. Follow-up questions only are permissible if new information arises, or if people are confused by the moderator's initial reply. (On most MedHelp forums, the moderators set their screen defaults so they never even see the follow-up comments.) Anyway, given the nature of your questions and my replies here, you probably can predict the responses to your follow-up questions.
My std related question was whether by me touching my mouth....with no visible sore from the contact...and then touching genitals to urinate..whether that was risky. I guess i was asking in the event of Assuming that i had contracted it. buthad no signs of it..I should have been more specific in my question (she woke up with the sore wed. started on zovirax thursday, and the incident took place saturday morning 5AM. i BELIEVE it was dried up but could be wrong..I am assuming after this additional info that your answers remain the same?
-the other question i originally wanted wanted to ask was how often would u reccommend herpes testing in general for someone like me, who got it done a year ago with one consistent partner in between?
That will be it for me. Enjoy your upcoming holidays.
The self-infection (the medical term is auto-inoclation) scenario you describe is very unlikely, especially in the absence of overt, symptomatic infection at one site or the other.
I see no reason for additional HSV testing until/unless you have a serious exposure. The event you describe doesn't count. Herpes blood testing is not routine as an STD screening procedure, and repeated certainly is not recommended for most people except in special circumstances.
The main question in my mind is why you are so concerned about this. Nobody wants to get genital herpes, but 90% of the time it's not a big deal--and genital infection with HSV-1 is especially not something to go around worrying about.
Well to switch rolls i will answer YOUR question. I am the type of person that likes to either know, or not know. and by me touching my mouth with no symptoms, and then touching "downstairs" with no symptoms, then its like there is no knowing for sure. I am well aware there is a medical condition for this thinking and actually am starting treatment this week. But for me....it was merely a matter of wondering whether i could "auto-Inoculate" even without having something close to resembling a symptom. which after reading your responses, im guessing is like a 1/1000 chance.
So doc as one final question, and I am only asking through my own thread because i know i cannot post a new thread, What are the REALISTIC ball park odds of me auto inoculating myself from this initial exposure (bottle exposure) without any overt sores on me, anywhere, even if her sore WASNT dried up......and 21 days later still no signs. Thanks
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