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HSV1 Confirmation with Western Blot?

I've had one genital episode back in March of this year - one doctor thought it was herpes, another said definitely not - he thought it was fungal balanitis. After researching I feel it was most likely genital psoriasis, but I can't be sure. There was some residual redness/dryness even up until recently. I went to a dermatologist a few weeks ago who looked at it and said "that could have been anything." It seemed to finally resolve after putting Aquaphor on it daily. I have never had any oral symptoms either.

I took the IGG herpesselect test a few times starting about 4 years ago. Each time I was in the low positive for HSV1, in the area of 1.2. After this recent episode, I got the same results.

Do you feel a Western Blot test would help clarify if I am indeed positive for HSV1?
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300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
This indeed will be the last answer.  We are now repeating ourselves and that is simply not a good use of your or my time.

There is nothing in the history you provided to suggest that you have ever had HSV-1 or -2.  There is a better than average chance that you will have another negative Western blot when your results come back (I have to also say to you and to others who read this, I wish you had mentioned your prior negative Western blot before; asking questions without providing all of the available information effectively makes it more likely you will not get a comprehensive or correct answer.  It is not in your interest).

You have several other very plausible reasons for having had lesions, including psoriasis.  

At this point my advice is essentially as it was before.  Wait for your Western blot result and when it comes back, believe it.  If you can't believe it, then it is time to talk with a therapist.  No futher questions please;  additional repetitive questions will be deleted without comment.  EWH

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Avatar universal
Not to belabor the point but I would like to give my full history (and if it's necessary to pay again that's fine, please let me know). I'm a bit uncertain about the whole matter and trying to come to some resolve over it.

About 5 years ago I did indeed take the western blot for herpes (as you can probably gather by now, I'm a bit paranoid about it) in response to an unsafe sex encounter. I had pain in my penis, most likely from anxiety. A dermatologist in NYC who specialized in HSV was giving them at the time, through UW - I forget his name. I tested negative for both 1 and 2 at 6 months past the encounter.

Approx 4 years ago I went to a massage parlor and received a handjob, and the provider was breathing onto my penis, but no oral contact. About 2 weeks later I had *extreme* pain urinating with a clear discharge. My GP thought it was fungal, he sent me to a urologist who put me on antibiotics, but the antibiotics didn't really seem to work and the urine samples showed no bacterial infection. At one point he described my prostate as "boggy" It resolved slowly on its own. He never gave me a definitive diagnosis. At about 4-6 weeks after that encounter I requested to be tested for HSV, being scared it was an atypical HSV infection. When the results came back I did test positive for HSV1 using an IGG test. My numbers were in the low 1 area as I recall, 1.2 I believe.

This March I did also go to a massage parlor where I received some oral sex covered with saran wrap - followed by a handjob. I got very paranoid and did indeed develop symptoms about 4 to 5 days later - initial redness on the tip of my penis followed by the skin peeling off, with 2 scabs but no blisters or open sores. The scabbed areas seemed to occur more as a result of the skin cracking due to changes in the size of the glans during erection than because of any blisters or sores. To me it really didn't look like herpes. There was no pain urinating or any discharge, but it was sort of in the same area of redness as the UTI. I returned to the same urologist who thought it was herpes. I then saw an infectious disease dr who said it was fungal, and definitely not herpes. Neither anti-virals or anti-fungals seemed to have much result. As I mentioned it took a very long time to resolve after the initial healing. The infectious disease dr thought it was eczema in response to the initial fungal infection. A dermatologist I saw recently thought it could be psoriasis, and I have had much more mild psoriasis diagnosed on my penis by the same derm. I was going to the gym a lot at the time too and showering a lot at the time as well.


After 3.5 months all my blood work came back negative except again HSV1 in the 1.2 area.

Maybe its a matter for a therapist and not a physician, but can you give me your (final) thoughts.
Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Disclosure is always the best course of action.  Having said that, in reading your post, I can see little reason for you to even entertain the possibility that you have genital herpes due to HSV-1 (or -2).  Personally, I would not pursue it

EWH
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Avatar universal
You don't sound uncaring and your question is valid - The problem comes from determining if and how I should disclose this to a potential partner.

It's an odd irony that genital hsv1 has a much lower transmission rate than oral, but socially (at least as I understand it) one is expected to disclose if you have it genitally and not required to if you have it orally. Do you have a position on this?

I guess I find the ambiguity difficult to deal with and would like further clarification, diagnostically if possible. Giving the "speech" to a partner seems almost more difficult when I have to say 'I'm not sure where' and 'maybe this' and 'maybe that'.
Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Fewer low positive HerpeSelect IgG assays for HSV-1 are false positive than is the case for HSV-2 so there is a somewhat higher likelihood that your  multiple positive results indicated true HSV-1 infection than not.  A Western blot would provide more definitive information.  

The facts are stated above.  My question however is why do you need to know?  If you have HSV-1, it does not tell you where you are infected and given the fact that your test was positive before your balanitis episode; odds are that that episode was not herpes.  If you have genital HSV-1, your likelihood of transmission is much lower than if you had HSV-2.  If you have oral HSV-1 you join the majority of humans (>60%) who have this infection.  

I don't mean to sound uncaring but it seems to me there is litter to be gained by you spending time and money knowing if you have HSV-1 or not.  Am I missing something here?  EWH
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