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I married 5 years with a child now. Recently, my partner and I did a blood test and the result were that I got Herpes type 1 & 2 positive, TPHA and Chlamydia as well. My partner did not have it all. However my partner did go for prostitution 3 months ago but I didn't.
My question is how it could be? How come my partner didn't have it all? Is there any possibility of after 10 years of infection or recently?
Are you sure your partner was tested for std's? It would be unusual for you to have syphillis, herpes and chlamydia and he has nothing.
You were most likely tested for chlamydia and syphillis when you were pregnant so I doubt you've had either of them for 10 years ( unless I'm misunderstanding and your child is that old ).
Thanks for your reply. My child is 1yr 10mths now. When pregnant I was tested for syphillis and is non reactiveReactive arthritis, however didn't tested for herps & chlamydia. My husband & I go for the same blood test at the same time and the result shows below:-
My result:
HIV 1 & 2 Ab/Ag Not Detected
Herps simplex Type 1 lgG 9.5 Units
Herps simples Type 2 IgG 8.2 Units
Chlaymydia species lgG 2.1 Units
RPROverproductive ovaries Rpr (VDRL) POSITIVETitre = 1:1
Is there any posibilities of lab mistake? Did we need to test for another time? How soon can the HIV tested result be accurate? I undestand from my doctor that normally the HIV take at least 6 month to be sure of not detected. My husband go for prostitution on 27 June and we having sex on 29 June.
I was tested and the results are 7.4 for Herpes Type 1 or Positive and 0.4 for Type 2.
Question 1. what does the unit represent i.e. lgG?
Question 2. for Type 2 0.4 means Negative but its still 0.4 does it mean I have a bit of it?
Question 3. Can my wife get Type 2 with my Type 1 Type 2 condtion?
The igg refers to the type of immune response the test looks for.
The .4 for your hsv2 result is negative. It doesn't mean you have just a little bit of it - it's actually "background noise" as it's referred to in the lab and it means that due to the way they do the test - you'll never get a 0.
Type 1 never turns into type 2 or vice versa. You can transmit hsv1 to the genital area thru oral sex but it doesn't turn into type 2 just because it's below the waist.
You were most likely tested for chlamydia and syphillis when you were pregnant so I doubt you've had either of them for 10 years ( unless I'm misunderstanding and your child is that old ).
grace
My result:
HIV 1 & 2 Ab/Ag Not Detected
Herps simplex Type 1 lgG 9.5 Units
Herps simples Type 2 IgG 8.2 Units
Chlaymydia species lgG 2.1 Units
RPR (VDRL) POSITIVETitre = 1:1
My husband result:
HIV 1 & 2 Ab/Ag Not Detected
Herps simplex Type 1 IgG 7.5 Units
Herps simplex Type 2 lgG 0.0 Units
Chlamydia species lgG 0.0 Units
RPR (VDRL) Non Reactive
Is there any posibilities of lab mistake? Did we need to test for another time? How soon can the HIV tested result be accurate? I undestand from my doctor that normally the HIV take at least 6 month to be sure of not detected. My husband go for prostitution on 27 June and we having sex on 29 June.
Please help!!!
Thank you very much.
Have you ran this past dr hook or dr handsfield at all on their board yet?
grace
I will post it.
I was tested and the results are 7.4 for Herpes Type 1 or Positive and 0.4 for Type 2.
Question 1. what does the unit represent i.e. lgG?
Question 2. for Type 2 0.4 means Negative but its still 0.4 does it mean I have a bit of it?
Question 3. Can my wife get Type 2 with my Type 1 Type 2 condtion?
Please advise.
The .4 for your hsv2 result is negative. It doesn't mean you have just a little bit of it - it's actually "background noise" as it's referred to in the lab and it means that due to the way they do the test - you'll never get a 0.
Type 1 never turns into type 2 or vice versa. You can transmit hsv1 to the genital area thru oral sex but it doesn't turn into type 2 just because it's below the waist.
grace