Member Comments are provided by individuals and reflect their personal opinions only. Under NO circumstances should you act on any advice or opinion posted in this forum. ALWAYS check with your personal physician before taking any action regarding your health! MedHelp International and our partners, sponsors and affiliates have no obligation to monitor any comments posted on this site, or the content and/or accuracy of such exchanges. MedHelp International does not endorse the views of any user.
STDs (Expert Forum)
Herpes & Cold Sore Issue, possible exposure
Answered by
University of Washington
Seattle - WA
Welcome to the STD Forum, which is intended only for questions and support pertaining to sexually transmitted diseases other than HIV/AIDS, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, human papillomavirus, genital warts, trichomonas, other vaginal infections, nongonoccal urethritis (NGU), cervicitis, molluscum contagiosum, chancroid, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). All questions will be answered by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D. or Edward W Hook, MD.
Herpes & Cold Sore Issue, possible exposure
by barnyardmt, Mar 17, 2009 02:59PM
Hi Dr.,
Wanted to get some feedback from on a situation I am experiencing.
Background:
I have oral herpes (fever blisters) usually 3 times a year. My wife has never had Oral Herpes, and neither one of us have ever had any genital herpes that we know of. We have always been very careful not to engage in any contact sexually when I have had an active fever blister
The issues in question's & Time line is below:
10pm, gave vigorous oral sex to my wife with a lot of contact for about 10 minutes. Then we had intercourse and then she gave me oral sex to finish off
9am this morning, I get that familiar feeling of a cold sore coming on. It has developed on my upper lip kind of off to the side, but not in the corner of my mouth.
My concerns are these:
1) how much are we at risk in that the cold sore was not noticeable last night but may have been in the early active stages when I gave her oral sex. ie the potential that I could have given her genital herpes?
2) Is it possible that she has had an inactive non-outbreak genital herpes and that is what caused me to have the cold sore today?
3) How should we proceed with monitoring/assessment and protective measures
Any help and advice will be greatly appreciated. THANKS!!!!
Wanted to get some feedback from on a situation I am experiencing.
Background:
I have oral herpes (fever blisters) usually 3 times a year. My wife has never had Oral Herpes, and neither one of us have ever had any genital herpes that we know of. We have always been very careful not to engage in any contact sexually when I have had an active fever blister
The issues in question's & Time line is below:
10pm, gave vigorous oral sex to my wife with a lot of contact for about 10 minutes. Then we had intercourse and then she gave me oral sex to finish off
9am this morning, I get that familiar feeling of a cold sore coming on. It has developed on my upper lip kind of off to the side, but not in the corner of my mouth.
My concerns are these:
1) how much are we at risk in that the cold sore was not noticeable last night but may have been in the early active stages when I gave her oral sex. ie the potential that I could have given her genital herpes?
2) Is it possible that she has had an inactive non-outbreak genital herpes and that is what caused me to have the cold sore today?
3) How should we proceed with monitoring/assessment and protective measures
Any help and advice will be greatly appreciated. THANKS!!!!
Doctor's Answer
by H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D., Mar 17, 2009 03:32PM
, Mar 17, 2009 03:32PM
Welcome to the STD forum. I'll try to help.
The risk of HSV transmission in this situation can be broken down into 2 components: the likelihood you were shedding virus and that the exposure could have transmitted it; and whether or not your wife is susceptible to HSV-1.
Let's take the latter first. If your wife already is infected with HSV-1, she is highly resistant to catching a new HSV-1 infection anywhere on her body. Half of all adults in the US (more in many countries) have HSV-1, usually dating to childhood. Absence of symptomatic oral herpes makes no difference; it's 50% even in people without known oral herpes. The odds your wife has HSV-1 is higher than average, since she could have caught it from you before now, either by kissing or by oral-genital contact. Again, since most cases of HSV infection are asymptomatic, her lack of symptoms doesn't mean she isn't infected. For these reasons, the odds are better than 50:50 that you couldn't give HSV-1 to your wife even if you tried.
The first question is easier: there is a very good chance you were shedding virus during the sexual activities you describe, since shedding often starts several hours (up to a day or two) before symptoms start. And the relative vigor of the exposure that you describe might increase the possibility of transmission.
Now to your specific questions:
1) If your wife is not already infected with HSV-1, there probably was a high chance of transmission. If she is infected, the risk was very low, probably zero. With the information currently available, it isn't possible to estimate the actual risk.
2) Even if your wife has genital HSV-1, there is no risk to you. You are immune to catching a new HSV-1 infection. Also, asymptomatic genital herpes is uncommon due to HSV-1, so even if your wife had a genital infection, she is not likely to transmit it in the absence of symptoms.
3) Your wife should be on the lookout for symptoms that suggest genital herpes, i.e. blisters/sores of the genital area. If symptoms appear, she should see her doctor immediately, i.e. within a day or two, for diagnosis and treatment. Second, if she doesn't develop any symptoms, she should have a blood test to determine whether or not she has been infected with HSV-1 in the past. If so, she is not at risk for a new infection, for the reasons explained above.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
The risk of HSV transmission in this situation can be broken down into 2 components: the likelihood you were shedding virus and that the exposure could have transmitted it; and whether or not your wife is susceptible to HSV-1.
Let's take the latter first. If your wife already is infected with HSV-1, she is highly resistant to catching a new HSV-1 infection anywhere on her body. Half of all adults in the US (more in many countries) have HSV-1, usually dating to childhood. Absence of symptomatic oral herpes makes no difference; it's 50% even in people without known oral herpes. The odds your wife has HSV-1 is higher than average, since she could have caught it from you before now, either by kissing or by oral-genital contact. Again, since most cases of HSV infection are asymptomatic, her lack of symptoms doesn't mean she isn't infected. For these reasons, the odds are better than 50:50 that you couldn't give HSV-1 to your wife even if you tried.
The first question is easier: there is a very good chance you were shedding virus during the sexual activities you describe, since shedding often starts several hours (up to a day or two) before symptoms start. And the relative vigor of the exposure that you describe might increase the possibility of transmission.
Now to your specific questions:
1) If your wife is not already infected with HSV-1, there probably was a high chance of transmission. If she is infected, the risk was very low, probably zero. With the information currently available, it isn't possible to estimate the actual risk.
2) Even if your wife has genital HSV-1, there is no risk to you. You are immune to catching a new HSV-1 infection. Also, asymptomatic genital herpes is uncommon due to HSV-1, so even if your wife had a genital infection, she is not likely to transmit it in the absence of symptoms.
3) Your wife should be on the lookout for symptoms that suggest genital herpes, i.e. blisters/sores of the genital area. If symptoms appear, she should see her doctor immediately, i.e. within a day or two, for diagnosis and treatment. Second, if she doesn't develop any symptoms, she should have a blood test to determine whether or not she has been infected with HSV-1 in the past. If so, she is not at risk for a new infection, for the reasons explained above.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Related discussions
-
5 months pregnant and HSV (1 replies):Thanks for the response to my wife's initial post (from ...[more]
-
Genital Herpes from Oral (4 replies):I have recently been exposed to a female with genital he...[more]
-
oral herpes (4 replies):about a week after i gave oral sex to a girl i had what ...[more]
-
Couple Male HSV2 Oral / Female HSV2 Genital (4 replies):Hello, I recently contracted HSV2, about 3 months ago. ...[more]
-
How much risk should i be worried about (1 replies):Hi all, Wanted to get some feedback from everyone on ...[more]
-
Genital HSV1 (7 replies):My culture results and herpeselect results both came bac...[more]
-
Herpes, How Much Risk for this situation?Hi all, Wanted to get some feedback from everyone on...[more]
-
Herpes Exposure (4 replies):After having an affair with someone whom's wife has geni...[more]
Please allow me to list some follow up questions:
To Clarify:
1) If I did indeed, and god I hope not! transfer HSV-1 to her last night, she can never give it back to me in anyway through a genital to genital contact in the future?
2)Would it make any sense for her to get a blood test tomorrow to see if she has HSV-1, or is it too late in the sense that the contact/exposure we just had last night could already show up in the blood?.....ie we have to wait it out and see if she has any symptoms before we get a test......also, how little time or how long a time should we wait for symptoms before we feel safe again?
3) Also, playing off question 1, should I wear a condom during intercourse now or should we abstain?
THANKS for your help Dr. Hansfield! I really appreciate your expertise!
2) It takes at least 3-4 weeks for the blood test to be positive. It would be a good idea for her to be tested soon. If it's positive, you'll know for sure she was infected in the past and is no longer susceptible.
3) There is no need for condoms to protect either your wife or yourself.
Thanks for the thanks--
i seem to remember we had a similar situation years ago when we were dating...am I safe in thinking that since she never got any symptoms then....then that is at least something on the positive side of things in that she may indeed already have the HSV-1 ...THANKS again, and I will definitely have her go get a blood test for HSV-1
Thanks!
Which is the best Type Specific Blood Test we should look for at the different testing centers?
THANKS!!!!
So are you indeed saying that since I get cold sores I obviously have HSV 1, and due to that, I cannot be affected genitally from any contact from my wife if she is HSV 1 genitally because i already have it....meaning that I could never have a genital HSV 1 Outbreak?
THANKS for all your help Docs!