How long can HPV be latent in men?

My wife and I began dating in 1989 and we were married in 1993.  I have not had sex with anyone except my wife since we started dating in 1989. I was 26 years old in 1989 - prior to my relationship with her I had been sexually active, having had sex with 15 women. In 1998 my wife had a pap smear and a subsequent colposcopy showing an HPV infection. The following year, her pap smear showed the HPV was gone. My wife recently had a doctor tell her that she would have had to developed the HPV infection some time in 1996, 1997, or 1998. The doctor also told her that I would have had to have contracted this infection in the same time frame. In other words, the doctor is stating that I was unfaithful to her. I know this to be untrue. Is there any medical explanation for the 1998 HPV infection? I know I was not unfaithful and I believe my wife when she says she wasn't  either.

[H. Hunter Handsfield, M.D.]

Your wife has had inaccurate medical advice about when she might have been infected with HPV (or she misunderstood the doctor).  It's pretty common for HPV-related pap smear abnormalities to appear out of the blue in monogamous couples.  The exact explanations are not always clear.  However, assuming your sexual history is as you describe, and also assuming your wife has had no other partners since you were married, there are only two possibilities:  your wife had a latent infection since before you were married; or you had a latent infection and transmitted it to her.

You're probably never going to know which situation applies in your case.  But this is a common situation in completely faithful monogamous couples.  Don't go overboard on the basis of the inaccurate knowledge of a single health care provider.

I hope this helps.  Best wishes--  HHH, MD