I recently had unprotected sex. Two days later I went to the doctor with itching and burning in my urethra as well as a clear discharge. The took a urine sample and said the test would not be back until Monday but treated me for gonorrhea and chlamydia. The girl I was with says there is no way that she has this. I'm skeptical but wanted to know if I could have had this from more than a year and a half ago (my last unprotected sexual ecounter)? Is it possible for the symptoms to not show up for more than a year? Thanks in advance.
With gonorrhea, nope. Men almost ALWAYS get a very noticeable discharge when they have gonorrhea as early as 2 days after exposure. It sounds more like chlamydia to me. Add the symptoms to the fact that about 75% of women do not get symptoms of chlamydia and it fits. Also, you should know that most of the time, if symptoms show up, it happens within 1-4 weeks after initial infection. So, you should get to the bottom of it. And be sure to avoid sexual contact or at the very least use condoms if you have sex with her until she gets tested and/or treated.
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