I am a 45 year old married male. Unfortunately, while my wife was away for a month, I had unprotected vaginal sexual activity with a younger woman, 22, who I know reasonably well. I had been "assured' that her previous sexual activity had been confined to 4 times with one man, always with protection. 12 days post acitivity, after extensive travel and ten hour time zone changes, i woke up with some increased urination frequency (no burning, no discharge, no "classical" STD symptoms). As I had had an acute prostatitis about a year ago (fever, PSA up from 1.0 to 18.0, frequent urination, full cystoscopy, etc) I immmediately went in for testing. Urine Culture was negative and PSA was normal at 1.0, but some increase in my normal WBC from 5.4 to 8.5, (range to 4.0 to 10.0)and Monocytes from .6 to .9 (range is .1 to .8)
I did talk at length with the younger woman and she adamantly assured me that her ONLY unprotected sexual activity has been with me.
Just to be complete, I also went in for STI testing: Chlamydia and Gororrhea (urine sample) and Syphilis (blood test) at the Provincial STI Clinic in Vancouver BC. Canada. (I mention this as you would likely have familiarity with the testing methods there with your close proximity in Washington State)
I just got the results: all tests are negative - which is what I wanted to hear.
As a backup plan, my family MD has provided me with one gram of Azithromycin and 400 mg of Cefixime - which i am reluctant to take unnecessarily. The reason for this is that my wife is now back but i have avoided having sex with her to date.
My family MD was quite clear - with a negative test for Chlamdia and Gonorrhea, I should be fine as he believes that the 12 days window betweent the time of exposure and time of testing is adequate. However, the STI Clinic in Vancouver has said, while the test for Gonorhea is accurate, the Clamydia test may be too soon.
What is your experience with this?