I recently began dating a man and we have been having both oral and regular sexual intercourse for about 8 weeks. He stated before we began having sex that he had been tested for STDs and he was clean. I knew that I was as well. We were together during the week of May 13-May 18, in which we engaged in frequent oral/regular intercourse. We didn't see each other for two weeks, and then were together again for a long weekend May 28-May 31, and again engaged in the same. On Sunday, May 30, he began having some body aches and began getting a sore throat. He attributed to a cold. he mentioned that he did have a little bit of itching and had a red spot that he applied neosporin to. I had some sinus issues and had gone to the Dr. the previous week for a UTI infection. I was on macrobid during the weekend we were together. He also felt that he had a fever. On Monday, May 31, I began having an itchy feeling in my vaginal area and attributed it to a yeast infection from the antibiotic and the increased activity. I called the Dr. for a diflucan and that did not have any effect. Then on Tuesday I felt really lethargic and achy, and noticed that the lymph nodes on the left side of my groin were tender. Wednesday ulcers/blisters/spots appeared. I went to the Dr. on Friday and upon visual examination stated that I had herpes. He did a swab and I am awaiting the results. My question is could he have had hsv-1 without symptoms and spread it to me during oral sex? He was very adament that he had been tested for all STDs before we even began having sex. He probably wouldn't consider hsv-1 in the form of a cold sore a form of hsv that cold be transmitted to the gentials, so if he had cold sores in the past, it might not even have crossed his mind. Any help is apprectiated.