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Inconsistencies with HPV information

Hi,

I know that HPV clears in most people (~90%) within two years after infection, and I was told on this forum that for the other 10%, it could take longer than two years to clear an infection.

However, is it true that some people will *never* clear an HPV infection? If HPV clears itself within a certain time frame, then how is it possible for a woman who has been in a monogamous marriage for 10+ years to test positive for HPV? This *does* happen.

One of the doctors in the expert forum said that it is unusual for HPV infections to last many years, but there are certainly cases where a woman has an HPV infection even after being in a long, monogamous relationship. If HPV is destined to clear itself up eventually, then what is the point of pap smears, and such?

I'm sorry if these questions seem absurd, but some of the info that I've read about HPV is very contradictory, and I'm trying to figure it out. Thanks.
9 Responses
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1609501 tn?1299201602
Yes, Dr. Hook said wait 3-6 months after symptoms stop and then you can go on without disclosure.

Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
just like warts on other body parts, most folks who are infected with hpv, don't get obvious signs but can still transmit it to others.  Most folks who get warts on their hands, can't recall shaking hands with someone who had a wart either.

the general thoughts at this point is if your warts haven't reoccurred in a year, you aren't likely to transmit it to a partner.  I believe HHH has said in some of his posts to not even wait that long even.
Helpful - 0
1609501 tn?1299201602
The only thing I don't understand about that is this. If you have it present in your body but you do not have warts or cell changes can you transmit it to someone else. I am sure I didn't see any warts on the guy I got this from, I have high and low. I realize I could have gotten this from more than one guy and that I could have more than one strain of each the high and low. So, once I pass these symptoms, warts and cell changes, wait a bit of time til I am sure I am symptom free, can I transmit HPV to another person? Or is it just that I have passed it and I will no longer have symptoms?

Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
in folks that hpv persists, it is technically active that whole time, just it can take 10, 20 or more years for most types to start causing cervical cell changes - for most types of hpv, it's a very slow process.  we don't routinely test for hpv in males or females. we do typically now test for hpv in females when they have an abnormal pap test with dysplasia.  

would you be infected immediately with hpv if you had sex with someone with it? No, not neccessarily.  You could have sex with that partner for weeks, months or even years without contracting their hpv.  

I don't think we've done studies on folks where they've been infected as a 20 something and then we've retested them frequently as 60 somethings or anything like that to see if it does reactivate many , many years later. I don't know that I've read any studies on warts reoccuring in the elderly.    Typically the hpv studies cover 1-2 years.  it's not too unusual for pregnant women to have hpv reactivate but in general for most folks, once it's went to a level where we can't detect it with the tests we currently have, we consider it cleared and studies have shown that typically  if you've been symptom free for a year, if you get symptoms again a few years down the road, it's usually a different type of hpv and indicates a new infection.  

grace
Helpful - 0
1609501 tn?1299201602
I have a question. :)  I thought once you get a strain of HPV you always have the strain in your body. That is why you can't ever get the same stain again. When you said you never knew of anyone who had HPV forever did you mean symptoms, cell changes and or warts?

Also, you can clear the symptoms in the 2 year period but have them show up at other points in life, right?

I def think stress, grief, low immune system are all issues as to why someone has symptoms when others don't.

Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Sorry, I have just one more question.

Would it be safe to assume that most HPV infections occur the moment the virus is transmitted? For example, if I have intercourse with an infected person, am I more likely to be infected at *that* moment, as opposed to later?
Helpful - 0
652407 tn?1300737199
That is correct, No need to apologize, HPV is very confusing. feel free to ask any further questions
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Oh ok. This makes 100% more sense to me now.

I guess I was under the assumption that once the virus is transmitted, the infection begins that instant.

So when the infection occurs, 90% of people will clear it within two years?

Sorry for my confusion, and thank you for the clarification.
Helpful - 0
652407 tn?1300737199
I am not aware of any studies of someone having HPV forever.

The time period you are speaking of would begin at the beginning of the outbreak.
A women or man can become infected with the virus and not become active for years, even up to ten years or longer. Soooo this women being diagnosed could have or her husband could have aquired HPV 10 years ago or longer but is just now becoming active.

I can't speak for the experts, none of us can but I can tell you that after the infection becomes active the normal clearing time frame is 2 years. again you can aquire HPV years ago but it could take years before becoming active. Sometimes the immune system can cause this to happenb.

Because High risk can lead to cancer that is the point of having a pap
Helpful - 0
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