I am freaking out here. I am male and had an indiscretion almost a year ago that ended in gonorrhea. I was able to get thru treatment and not have sex and used protection after that. I had not had sex before that for a couple of weeks. My wife now says she is really itchy there. Could I possibly passed this on and it has harbored in her? Did I have something else as well - but I have had no more symptoms. I do have slight burning when I urinate occasionally - it occurred more right after the incident, but no pus or anything. Am I putting too much together of isolated incidents?
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